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All organization is concerned about insider threats from employees who have individual access to encrypted material. Which of the following techniques best addresses this issue?

A. SSO with MFA

B. Sating and hashing

C. Account federation with hardware tokens

D. SAE

E. Key splitting

E.   Key splitting

Explanation:
The specific concern is an insider threat where a single employee with individual access to encrypted material could potentially misuse that access (e.g., decrypt and steal sensitive data). The goal is to technically prevent any one person from having the complete ability to access the encrypted data on their own.

Key Splitting (Sharding):
This is a cryptographic technique where a decryption key is divided into multiple unique parts (shards). A certain number of these shards (e.g., 3 out of 5) are required to reconstruct the original key and decrypt the data.

How it Addresses Insider Threat:
This technique implements a separation of duties and dual control for cryptographic access. No single employee ever possesses the entire key. To decrypt the material, multiple employees (e.g., from different departments) must collaborate and provide their individual key shards. This effectively mitigates the risk of a lone insider acting maliciously, as they cannot act alone.

Analysis of Incorrect Options:
A. SSO with MFA (Single Sign-On with Multi-Factor Authentication):
This improves authentication security by requiring a second factor to prove identity. However, once authenticated, the employee still has individual, complete access to the encrypted material. It does nothing to prevent a malicious insider from using their legitimate access to decrypt data.

B. Salting and hashing:
These are techniques used to protect stored passwords. A salt is added to a password before it is hashed to defeat precomputed rainbow table attacks. This is irrelevant to controlling access to encrypted data and does not address the insider threat scenario.

C. Account federation with hardware tokens:
Federation allows users to access multiple systems with a single set of credentials, and hardware tokens provide strong authentication. Similar to SSO, this is an access mechanism. It does not change the fact that once access is granted, the user has individual control over the encrypted material. It strengthens the gate but doesn't change what's behind it.

D. SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals):
SAE is a cryptographic protocol used in Wi-Fi networks (WPA3) for establishing a secure connection. It is designed to prevent offline dictionary attacks on Wi-Fi passwords and is not relevant for managing access to stored encrypted data or mitigating insider threats.

Reference:
This solution falls under Domain 3.6: Cryptography and Domain 1.0: Governance, Risk, and Compliance of the CAS-005 exam. Key concepts include:

Cryptographic Key Management: Implementing controls like key splitting to enforce separation of duties.

Principle of Least Privilege and Dual Control: Ensuring that critical actions (like decrypting sensitive data) require the collaboration of multiple parties, preventing any single point of failure or misuse.

Key splitting (E) is the only technique that directly and technically addresses the risk of a single insider misusing their individual access to encrypted material.

After some employees were caught uploading data to online personal storage accounts, a company becomes concerned about data leaks related to sensitive, internal documentation. Which of the following would the company most likely do to decrease this type of risk?

A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms.

B. Implement a cloud-access security broker

C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms

D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains

B.   Implement a cloud-access security broker

Explanation:
The problem is data exfiltration to unsanctioned cloud applications (personal storage accounts like Dropbox, Google Drive, etc.). The goal is to not just block or alert, but to actively monitor and control the data that is being sent to cloud services.

Cloud-Access Security Broker (CASB):
A CASB is a security policy enforcement point that sits between an organization's on-premises infrastructure and a cloud provider's infrastructure. It acts as a gatekeeper to ensure secure cloud usage.

How it Decreases Risk:
A CASB provides several critical functions that directly address this risk:

Discovery & Visibility:
It identifies all cloud services in use (sanctioned and unsanctioned).

Data Loss Prevention (DLP):
This is the key feature. A CASB can inspect data in motion to the cloud. It can identify sensitive content (based on patterns, fingerprints, or labels) being uploaded to personal storage sites and block the upload in real-time.

Access Control:
It can enforce policies to allow, block, or limit access to specific cloud applications based on user, device, or location.

A CASB provides a proactive, data-centric control designed specifically for the cloud era.

Analysis of Incorrect Options:
A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms & D. Deploy an internet proxy that filter certain domains:

These are similar network-based blocking solutions. While they can technically block access to the domains of popular storage platforms, they are very coarse and ineffective controls.

* Easy to Bypass: Employees can use personal devices on cellular networks to bypass corporate proxies and firewalls.

* Too Broad: It blocks the entire application, which might be used legitimately for non-sensitive work. A CASB offers much more granular control.

* Reactive: The list of personal storage sites is endless; new ones pop up constantly, making it a game of whack-a-mole.

C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms:
A SIEM is a detective control. It can alert after the data has already been exfiltrated. By the time the SOC analyst sees the alert, the sensitive data is already on a server outside the company's control. The requirement is to decrease the risk (prevent the leak), not just to discover it after the fact.

Reference:
This solution is a core component of Domain 3.4: Secure Network Architecture and Domain 1.4: Data Security of the CAS-005 exam. CASBs are a critical technology for implementing a data-centric security strategy in a hybrid cloud world.

While the other options provide partial, often ineffective solutions, implementing a CASB (B) is the most comprehensive and effective way to directly decrease the risk of data leaks to personal cloud storage accounts by inspecting and controlling the data itself.

Which of the following is the main reason quantum computing advancements are leading companies and countries to deploy new encryption algorithms?

A. Encryption systems based on large prime numbers will be vulnerable to exploitation

B. Zero Trust security architectures will require homomorphic encryption.

C. Perfect forward secrecy will prevent deployment of advanced firewall monitoring techniques

D. Quantum computers will enable malicious actors to capture IP traffic in real time

A.   Encryption systems based on large prime numbers will be vulnerable to exploitation

Explanation:
The threat posed by quantum computing is highly specific to certain types of cryptographic algorithms.

Shor's Algorithm:
This is a quantum algorithm that, if run on a sufficiently powerful quantum computer, can efficiently solve the mathematical problems that underpin the security of most widely used public-key cryptography.

Vulnerable Algorithms:

These include:

RSA:
Based on the practical difficulty of factoring the product of two large prime numbers.

Diffie-Hellman & ECC (Elliptic-Curve Cryptography):
Based on the difficulty of the discrete logarithm problem.

The Risk:
A cryptographically relevant quantum computer (CRQC) could use Shor's algorithm to break these encryption and digital signature schemes, rendering them useless. This would compromise the security of virtually all secure web traffic (TLS/SSL), digital signatures, and encrypted data that has been stored for future decryption. This specific and existential threat to current standards is the primary driver for the development and deployment of Post-Quantum Cryptography (PQC) – new encryption algorithms designed to be secure against both classical and quantum computer attacks.

Analysis of Incorrect Options:

B. Zero Trust security architectures will require homomorphic encryption.
Zero Trust is a security model centered on the belief that organizations should not automatically trust anything inside or outside its perimeters. While homomorphic encryption (performing computations on encrypted data) is an advanced cryptographic technique, it is not a requirement for Zero Trust. Zero Trust primarily relies on strong identity verification and access controls. The push for new algorithms is driven by quantum threats, not by Zero Trust architecture needs.

C. Perfect forward secrecy will prevent deployment of advanced firewall monitoring techniques.
Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is a feature of key agreement protocols that ensures a session key derived from a set of long-term keys cannot be compromised if one of the long-term keys is compromised in the future. PFS is a security benefit, not a hindrance. It does not prevent advanced firewall monitoring; firewalls can still inspect TLS traffic if they are configured as a trusted man-in-the-middle. This option is a distractor and not related to the quantum threat.

D. Quantum computers will enable malicious actors to capture IP traffic in real time.
The ability to capture IP traffic is a function of network access (e.g., through a compromised node or wiretap), not computational power. Quantum computers do not provide a new capability to capture traffic; they threaten the ability to decrypt the captured traffic that was encrypted using vulnerable algorithms. The threat is to breaking the encryption, not the capture itself.

Reference:
This topic is a key part of Domain 3.6: Cryptography in the CAS-005 exam. It requires an understanding of:

Quantum Threats: The specific risk that quantum computing poses to asymmetric cryptography based on integer factorization and discrete logarithm problems.

Cryptographic Agility: The need to prepare for the migration to post-quantum cryptographic algorithms, a effort being led by standards bodies like NIST.

The main and direct reason for deploying new encryption algorithms is the vulnerability of current prime number-based systems to quantum attacks, as described in option A.

During DAST scanning, applications are consistently reporting code defects in open-source libraries that were used to build web applications. Most of the code defects are from using libraries with known vulnerabilities. The code defects are causing product deployment delays. Which of the following is the best way to uncover these issues earlier in the life cycle?

A. Directing application logs to the SIEM for continuous monitoring

B. Modifying the WAF policies to block against known vulnerabilities

C. Completing an IAST scan against the web application

D. Using a software dependency management solution

D.   Using a software dependency management solution

An external threat actor attacks public infrastructure providers. In response to the attack and during follow-up activities, various providers share information obtained during response efforts. After the attack, energy sector companies share their status and response data:
Company
SIEM
UEBA
DLP
ISAC Member
TIP Integration
Time to Detect
Time to Respond
1
Yes
No
Yes
Yes
Yes
10 minutes
20 minutes
2
Yes
Yes
Yes
Yes
No
20 minutes
40 minutes
Yes
Yes
No
No
Yes
12 minutes
24 minutes
Which of thefollowing is the most important issue to address to defend against future attacks?

A. Failure to implement a UEBA system

B. Failure to implement a DLP system

C. Failure to join the industry ISAC

D. Failure to integrate with the TIP

C.   Failure to join the industry ISAC

A security officer performs due diligence activities before implementing a third-party solution into the enterprise environment. The security officer needs evidence from the third party that a data subject access request handling process is in place. Which of the following is the security officer most likely seeking to maintain compliance?

A. Information security standards

B. E-discovery requirements

C. Privacy regulations

D. Certification requirements

E. Reporting frameworks

C.   Privacy regulations

Previously intercepted communications must remain secure even if a current encryption key is compromised in the future. Which of the following best supports this requirement?

A. Tokenization

B. Key stretching

C. Forward secrecy

D. Simultaneous authentication of equals

C.   Forward secrecy

A network security architect for an organization with a highly remote workforce implements an always-on VPN to meet business requirements. Which of the following best explains why the architect is using this approach?

A. To facilitate device authentication using on-premises directory services

B. To allow access to directly connected print and scan resources

C. To enable usability of locally attached removable storage

D. To authorize updates to change the PIN on a smart card

A.   To facilitate device authentication using on-premises directory services

A compliance officer isfacilitating abusiness impact analysis (BIA)and wantsbusiness unit leadersto collect meaningful data. Several business unit leaders want more information about the types of data the officer needs. Which of the following data types would be the most beneficial for the compliance officer?(Select two)

A. Inventory details

B. Applicable contract obligations

C. Costs associated with downtime

D. Network diagrams

E. Contingency plans

F. Critical processes

B.   Applicable contract obligations
C.   Costs associated with downtime
F.   Critical processes

An administrator reviews the following log and determines the root cause of a site-to-site tunnel failure:

Which of the following actions should the administrator take to most effectively correct the failure?

A. Enable perfect forward secrecy on the remote peer.

B. Update the cipher suites configured for use on the server side.

C. Add a new subnet as a permitted initiator.

D. Disable IKE version 1 and run IKE version 2.

C.   Add a new subnet as a permitted initiator.

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