CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test

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Updated On : 16-Jul-2025
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Page 1 out of 45 Pages

An organization has experienced a breach of customer transactions. Under the terms of PCI DSS, which of the following groups should the organization report the breach to?

A. PCI Security Standards Council

B. Local law enforcement

C. Federal law enforcement

D. Card issuer

D.   Card issuer

Explanation:

In the event of a breach involving customer transactions, the organization must adhere to the PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard), which outlines requirements for protecting cardholder data. PCI DSS requirement 12.10.1 specifically mandates that organizations must notify the relevant parties in the event of a data breach involving cardholder information. The primary group that should be notified under PCI DSS is the card issuer (e.g., the bank or financial institution that issued the credit/debit cards involved in the breach).
This is because the card issuer is responsible for mitigating the risks related to fraudulent transactions that may arise as a result of the breach and can initiate actions like issuing new cards or monitoring accounts for suspicious activity.

Why not the others?
PCI Security Standards Council: This group sets the standards for PCI DSS compliance but does not play a direct role in breach notifications. They focus on policy, not incident response.
Local law enforcement: While local law enforcement may be involved depending on the situation, they are generally not the primary point of contact for breach notifications unless there's a criminal investigation involved.
Federal law enforcement: Similar to local law enforcement, federal agencies like the FBI may become involved in certain high-profile or cross-jurisdictional breaches, but they're not the first group to be contacted for breach notification under PCI DSS.

Reference:
PCI DSS Requirement 12.10.1 – Incident Response: Organizations must establish and implement incident response plans to address security breaches involving cardholder data, which includes notifying the card issuer and potentially other stakeholders.

An organization was compromised, and the usernames and passwords of all em-ployees were leaked online. Which of the following best describes the remedia-tion that could reduce the impact of this situation?

A. Multifactor authentication

B. Password changes

C. System hardening

D. Password encryption

A.   Multifactor authentication

Explanation:

The scenario involves an organization suffering a compromise where usernames and passwords of all employees were leaked online, exposing credentials that attackers could use to access systems (e.g., as in prior data breach or phishing scenarios). The goal is to reduce the impact of this leak, meaning preventing unauthorized access using the stolen credentials. Multifactor authentication (MFA) is the best remediation, as it adds additional authentication factors (e.g., a one-time code or biometric) beyond usernames and passwords, rendering stolen credentials insufficient for access. Let’s analyze why this is the best choice and why the other options are less effective in this context.

Why Multifactor Authentication?

Definition:
MFA requires two or more authentication factors (e.g., something you know, like a password; something you have, like a token; or something you are, like a fingerprint) to verify identity, significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized access even if credentials are compromised.

Relevance to Scenario:

Leaked Credentials:
With usernames and passwords exposed online (e.g., on a dark web forum, as in prior PII leak scenarios), attackers can attempt to access systems or services (e.g., VPN, email, as in prior IAM or ransomware scenarios). MFA ensures that stolen passwords alone cannot grant access, as additional factors are required.

Impact Reduction:
By implementing MFA (e.g., via authenticator apps or hardware tokens, as in prior authentication scenarios), the organization prevents attackers from exploiting the leaked credentials, minimizing the risk of further compromise at 12:02 PM PKT.

Broad Protection:
MFA applies to all affected accounts, providing immediate security across systems (e.g., cloud services, Active Directory, as in prior scenarios) without relying solely on users changing passwords.

Incident Response:
MFA is a proactive mitigation that addresses the immediate threat of credential misuse, aligning with rapid response needs post-breach (e.g., as in prior containment scenarios).

Why Not the Other Options?

Password Changes:

Definition:
Forcing all employees to change their passwords (e.g., via IAM policy, as in prior scenarios). Why Less Suitable: While password changes are necessary, they are less effective if attackers already have the credentials and act quickly (e.g., within hours). Users may also choose weak passwords, and without MFA, new passwords remain vulnerable to future leaks or attacks.

System Hardening:

Definition:

System hardening involves securing systems (e.g., disabling unused services, patching, as in prior server hardening or Telnet scenarios).

Why Less Suitable:
Hardening addresses system vulnerabilities but not the specific issue of leaked credentials. It’s a broader, less targeted remediation compared to MFA for this scenario.

Password Encryption:

Definition:

Encrypting passwords in storage (e.g., using bcrypt, as in prior database security scenarios).

Why Less Suitable:
The passwords are already leaked, so encrypting them now doesn’t mitigate the current exposure. Encryption protects stored credentials, not those already exposed online, making MFA more effective.

References:
MFA prevents unauthorized access after credential leaks.

Critical for reducing impact of data breaches.

Final Answer:
The best remediation to reduce the impact of usernames and passwords being leaked online is multifactor authentication, as it prevents unauthorized access by requiring additional verification factors, rendering the stolen credentials ineffective..

A SOC analyst determined that a significant number of the reported alarms could be closed after removing the duplicates. Which of the following could help the analyst reduce the number of alarms with the least effort?

A. SOAR

B. API

C. XDR

D. REST

A.   SOAR

Explanation: SOAR platforms are designed to automate and streamline security operations, especially repetitive tasks like alert triage, correlation, and response.Here's how SOAR helps reduce duplicate alarms with minimal effort:

Automated Playbooks: SOAR can run predefined workflows to identify and close duplicate or low-priority alerts automatically.

Alert Enrichment & Deduplication: It correlates data from multiple sources and enriches alerts with context, helping analysts quickly identify duplicates.

Reduced Analyst Fatigue: By handling repetitive tasks, SOAR frees up SOC analysts to focus on real threats.

Why Not the Others?
API
APIs enable integration between tools but don’t inherently reduce alarms without custom development.
XDR
XDR (Extended Detection and Response) improves visibility and correlation but may still generate high alert volumes.
REST
REST is a protocol for APIs; it doesn’t directly help with alarm management or deduplication.

During a scan of a web server in the perimeter network, a vulnerability was identified that could be exploited over port 3389. The web server is protected by a WAF. Which of the following best represents the change to overall risk associated with this vulnerability?

A. The risk would not change because network firewalls are in use.

B. The risk would decrease because RDP is blocked by the firewall.

C. The risk would decrease because a web application firewall is in place.

D. The risk would increase because the host is external facing.

B.   The risk would decrease because RDP is blocked by the firewall.

Explanation:

The vulnerability is related to port 3389, which is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) — not a web application protocol.
The presence of a Web Application Firewall (WAF) only protects against attacks at the web application layer (HTTP/S), not RDP or other network-layer protocols.
Because the server is in the perimeter network (DMZ) and is external facing, this increases the likelihood of exploitation by attackers from the internet.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
“The risk would not change because network firewalls are in use”
❌ Incorrect — the presence of a firewall doesn’t eliminate risk unless it’s explicitly configured to block port 3389. The question doesn’t say that.
“The risk would decrease because RDP is blocked by the firewall”
❌ Incorrect — if RDP were blocked, this would decrease risk. However, the question does not state that RDP is blocked.
“The risk would decrease because a web application firewall is in place”
❌ Incorrect — a WAF does not protect against RDP attacks, since RDP is not a web protocol. So, it does not mitigate this risk.

Reference:
NIST SP 800-30 Rev. 1 – Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments: Discusses how external exposure increases likelihood, and therefore overall risk.
Microsoft Port 3389 (RDP) Vulnerabilities: RDP has been a frequent vector for external attacks, especially brute-force and exploit-based.

An attacker recently gained unauthorized access to a financial institution's database, which contains confidential information. The attacker exfiltrated a large amount of data before being detected and blocked. A security analyst needs to complete a root cause analysis to determine how the attacker was able to gain access. Which of the following should the

A. Document the incident and any findings related to the attack for future reference.

B. Interview employees responsible for managing the affected systems.

C. Review the log files that record all events related to client applications and user access.

D. Identify the immediate actions that need to be taken to contain the incident and minimize

C.   Review the log files that record all events related to client applications and user access.

Explanation:

The scenario involves an attacker who gained unauthorized access to a financial institution’s database, exfiltrated a large amount of data, and was subsequently detected and blocked. The security analyst must perform a root cause analysis (RCA) to determine how the attacker gained access, which requires identifying the initial entry point (e.g., a vulnerability, stolen credentials, or misconfiguration, as in prior data breach or ransomware scenarios). Reviewing log files that record events related to client applications and user access is the most effective method for RCA, as logs provide detailed evidence of system activity, user actions, and potential indicators of compromise (IOCs) that reveal the attack vector. Let’s analyze why this is the best choice and why the other options are less suitable for RCA.

Why Review Log Files?

Definition:
Log files (e.g., from SIEM, application logs, or authentication servers like Active Directory) record events such as login attempts, application access, and network activity, which can reveal how an attacker gained access (e.g., via stolen credentials, SQL injection, or a misconfigured application, as in prior scenarios).

Relevance to Scenario:

Root Cause Analysis:
RCA requires tracing the attacker’s entry point and actions (e.g., a phishing email leading to credential theft, as in prior phishing scenarios, or an exploited vulnerability like SQL injection, as in prior database breach scenarios). Log files provide a timeline of events, such as failed logins, privilege escalation, or suspicious database queries, critical for identifying the root cause at 12:14 PM PKT.

Client Applications and User Access:
Logs from client applications (e.g., web or database apps) and user access (e.g., authentication logs) can show IOCs like brute-force attempts, unusual login locations (e.g., IP 192.0.2.123, as in prior C2 scenarios), or unauthorized queries (e.g., large data extractions).

Financial Institution Context:
Databases containing confidential information (e.g., PII, financial data, as in prior GDPR or data breach scenarios) require detailed log analysis to detect attack vectors, such as compromised accounts or application vulnerabilities

. Incident Response:
Reviewing logs is a core RCA step per NIST SP 800-61r2, enabling the analyst to reconstruct the attack and identify the initial compromise (e.g., a weak password or unpatched CVE, as in prior vulnerability scan scenarios)

. Why Not the Other Options?

Document the Incident and Any Findings for Future Reference:

Definition:
Documenting the incident (e.g., in an after-action report, as in prior reporting scenarios) records findings and lessons learned.

Why Less Suitable:
Documentation occurs after RCA to record results, not to identify the root cause. It’s a follow-up step, not the primary method for determining how the attacker gained access.

Interview Employees Responsible for Managing the Affected Systems:

Definition:
Interviewing employees (e.g., admins, as in prior insider threat or IAM scenarios) gathers insights into system management practices.

Why Less Suitable:
Interviews provide subjective information and may miss technical details (e.g., specific vulnerabilities). Logs offer objective evidence, making them more effective for RCA. Identify the Immediate Actions That Need to Be Taken to Contain the Incident and Minimize Damage:

Definition:
Containment actions (e.g., isolating systems, blocking IPs, as in prior containment scenarios) limit further damage

Why Less Suitable:
Containment precedes RCA in the incident response process (NIST SP 800-61r2). Since the attacker is already blocked, RCA focuses on identifying the root cause, not containment.

References:
Log analysis is critical for RCA in database breaches.

Identifies attack vectors like credential misuse or vulnerabilities.

Final Answer:
The best approach for the security analyst to complete a root cause analysis is to review the log files that record all events related to client applications and user access, as these provide objective evidence to identify how the attacker gained unauthorized access to the database.

The management team requests monthly KPI reports on the company's cybersecurity program. Which of the following KPIs would identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment?

A. Employee turnover

B. Intrusion attempts

C. Mean time to detect

D. Level of preparedness

C.   Mean time to detect

Explanation:
Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the average time it takes to identify a security threat after it has entered the environment. It reflects how quickly your security operations team or tools can spot malicious activity.
A shorter MTTD means threats are detected quickly, reducing potential damage.
A longer MTTD indicates blind spots or inefficiencies in monitoring and detection capabilities.

Why Not the Others?
Employee turnover Measures HR metrics, not threat detection.
Intrusion attempts Tracks how often threats occur, not how long they go unnoticed.
Level of preparedness Assesses readiness, not actual detection time.

Reference:
According to SecurityScorecard’s 2025 KPI guide, MTTD is one of the most critical metrics for understanding how long threats remain undetected in an environment. It helps organizations benchmark their detection capabilities and improve incident response strategies.

Which Of the following techniques would be best to provide the necessary assurance for embedded software that drives centrifugal pumps at a power Plant?

A. Containerization

B. Manual code reviews

C. Static and dynamic analysis

D. Formal methods

E. D

D.   Formal methods

Explanation:

Formal methods are mathematically based techniques used to specify, develop, and verify software systems, particularly where safety, security, and correctness are critical — such as embedded software controlling centrifugal pumps in a power plant.
In high-assurance environments (e.g., nuclear plants, aviation, industrial control systems), it's vital to prove that software behaves exactly as intended. Formal methods do this by applying mathematical proofs and model checking to ensure software is free of critical flaws before it's even run.

Why Other Options Are Less Suitable:
Containerization
Useful for deploying and isolating applications, but not a method to assure the correctness of embedded control software.
Manual code reviews
Helpful for finding bugs, but are subject to human error and don’t provide mathematical assurance or guarantees.
Static and dynamic analysis
Valuable tools, but they can miss edge cases, and don't prove correctness — they only highlight possible issues.
“D”
This looks like a distractor or miskeyed input — not a valid choice.

Reference:
NIST SP 800-160 Vol. 1 – Systems Security Engineering: Recommends formal methods for high-assurance systems
(NIST SP 800-160 Vol. 1)
IEC 61508: International standard for functional safety of electrical/electronic/programmable systems
Formal Methods Overview (NASA):

Using open-source intelligence gathered from technical forums, a threat actor compiles and tests a malicious downloader to ensure it will not be detected by the victim organization's endpoint security protections. Which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain best aligns with the threat actor's actions?

A. Delivery

B. Reconnaissance

C. Exploitation

D. Weaponizatign

D.   Weaponizatign

Explanation:

The scenario describes a threat actor gathering open-source intelligence (OSINT) from technical forums to compile and test a malicious downloader, ensuring it evades the victim organization’s endpoint security protections (e.g., antivirus or EDR, as in prior malware or EDR scenarios). The Cyber Kill Chain, developed by Lockheed Martin, outlines the stages of a cyberattack: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control (C2), and actions on objectives. The act of compiling and testing a malicious downloader to bypass security aligns with the weaponization phase, where the attacker crafts and prepares a malicious payload for use in an attack. Let’s analyze why this is the best choice and why the other options are less suitable.

Why Weaponization?

Definition:
Weaponization involves creating or modifying a malicious payload (e.g., a downloader, malware, or exploit) to target a specific system or vulnerability, often tailoring it to evade detection (e.g., as in prior logic bomb or malware scenarios).

Relevance to Scenario:

OSINT from Technical Forums:
The threat actor uses OSINT (e.g., forum posts about endpoint security, as in prior threat intelligence scenarios) to gather information on the victim’s protections (e.g., antivirus signatures or EDR rules), informing the creation of the downloader to bypass them.

Compile and Test a Malicious Downloader:
Compiling a downloader (e.g., a script or executable to deliver additional malware, as in prior ransomware or phishing scenarios) and testing it to ensure it evades detection (e.g., via sandbox or AV testing, as in prior scenarios) is the process of crafting a tailored malicious payload, which defines weaponization.

Evading Endpoint Security:
The testing ensures the downloader avoids detection by the organization’s EDR or antivirus (e.g., CrowdStrike, as in prior EDR scenarios), a key aspect of weaponization to prepare an effective attack tool at 12:23 PM PKT.

Cyber Kill Chain Context:
Weaponization occurs after reconnaissance (gathering OSINT) and before delivery (e.g., sending the downloader via phishing), focusing on payload creation and optimization.

Why Not the Other Options?

Delivery:

Definition:
Delivery involves transmitting the malicious payload to the target (e.g., via phishing email or malicious link, as in prior scenarios).

Why Less Suitable:
The scenario focuses on compiling and testing the downloader, not delivering it to the victim, making delivery a later stage.

Reconnaissance:

Definition:
Reconnaissance involves gathering information about the target (e.g., via OSINT or scanning, as in prior Nmap or threat intelligence scenarios).

Why Less Suitable:
While OSINT gathering is reconnaissance, the act of compiling and testing the downloader is a separate action, aligning with weaponization as the payload is crafted based on that intelligence.

Exploitation:

Definition:
Exploitation occurs when the payload is executed to compromise the target (e.g., exploiting a vulnerability, as in prior XSS or RCE scenarios).

Why Less Suitable:
The downloader has not yet been executed or delivered; the scenario describes its creation and testing, which occurs before exploitation.

Final Answer:
The stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that best aligns with the threat actor’s actions of using OSINT to compile and test a malicious downloader is weaponization, as it involves crafting and optimizing the malicious payload to evade endpoint security protections.

A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?

A. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques

B. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning

C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans

D. Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours

C.   Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans

Explanation:
Operational Technology (OT) environments often include fragile and legacy equipment such as PLCs (Programmable Logic Controllers) and RTUs (Remote Terminal Units). These devices are highly sensitive to network traffic and can be disrupted or damaged by aggressive scanning techniques.

Passive vulnerability scanning is the safest approach in such environments because:

It monitors network traffic without sending probes or packets that could interfere with device operations.
It avoids overloading fragile systems, which may crash or behave unpredictably under active scans.
It’s ideal for environments where availability and stability are critical, such as manufacturing or industrial control systems.

Why Not the Others?
Nmap Scripting Engine Uses active scanning that can disrupt fragile OT devices.
Preserving PLC ladder logic Important for backup, but doesn’t prevent harm during scanning.
Off-peak scanning Reduces operational impact but doesn’t eliminate risk to fragile devices.

Reference:
According to Tenable’s OT scanning guidance, passive monitoring is recommended for fragile OT environments to avoid service degradation or outages. It uses proprietary protocols to safely observe device behavior without interference.

New employees in an organization have been consistently plugging in personal webcams despite the company policy prohibiting use of personal devices. The SOC manager discovers that new employees are not aware of the company policy. Which of the following will the SOC manager most likely recommend to help ensure new employees are accountable for following the company policy?

A. Human resources must email a copy of a user agreement to all new employees

B. Supervisors must get verbal confirmation from new employees indicating they have read the user agreement.

C. All new employees must take a test about the company security policy during the cjitoardmg process.

D. All new employees must sign a user agreement to acknowledge the company security

D.   All new employees must sign a user agreement to acknowledge the company security

Explanation:

The scenario involves new employees consistently violating the company policy prohibiting personal devices (e.g., webcams, which pose risks like unauthorized access or data leakage, as in prior insider threat or data breach scenarios) due to unawareness. The SOC manager needs to recommend a method to ensure employees are accountable for following the policy. Requiring all new employees to sign a user agreement acknowledging the security policy is the most effective approach, as it creates a formal, documented commitment to compliance, ensuring awareness and accountability. Let’s analyze why this is the best choice and why the other options are less suitable.

Why Sign a User Agreement?

Definition:
A user agreement (e.g., an acceptable use policy or AUP, as in prior IAM or policy scenarios) is a document outlining security policies, including device usage restrictions. Signing it formalizes an employee’s acknowledgment and commitment to comply, creating a legal and enforceable record.

Relevance to Scenario:

Unawareness of Policy:
New employees plugging in personal webcams indicate a lack of policy awareness (e.g., similar to prior scenarios where employees bypassed security controls). A signed user agreement ensures employees are explicitly informed of the policy during onboarding at 12:30 PM PKT.

Accountability:
Signing a document creates a verifiable record that employees have reviewed and agreed to the policy (e.g., prohibiting personal devices), making them accountable for violations (e.g., for disciplinary action, as in prior HR or insider threat scenarios).

Security Posture:
Formal acknowledgment reduces insider risks (e.g., USB device vulnerabilities, as in prior malware scenarios) by ensuring employees understand consequences of non-compliance.

Standard Practice:
Per NIST SP 800-50, signed agreements are a best practice for security awareness, ensuring employees are aware of and accountable for policies.

Why Not the Other Options?
Human Resources Must Email a Copy of a User Agreement to All New Employees:

Definition:
Emailing the user agreement (e.g., as a PDF, as in prior communication scenarios) informs employees of the policy

. Why Less Suitable:
Emailing does not ensure employees read or understand the policy, nor does it create a formal record of acknowledgment, reducing accountability compared to a signed agreement. Supervisors Must Get Verbal Confirmation from New Employees Indicating They Have Read the User Agreement:

Definition:
Verbal confirmation involves supervisors asking employees to confirm they’ve read the policy (e.g., as in prior training scenarios).

Why Less Suitable:
Verbal confirmation lacks documentation, making it difficult to prove awareness or enforce accountability. It’s less reliable than a signed agreement. All New Employees Must Take a Test About the Company Security Policy During the Onboarding Process:

Definition:
A test assesses employees’ understanding of security policies (e.g., as in prior security awareness training scenarios)

. Why Less Suitable:
While tests promote understanding, they don’t formally bind employees to compliance or create a legal record of acknowledgment, making them less effective for accountability than a signed agreement

. Final Answer:
The SOC manager will most likely recommend that all new employees must sign a user agreement to acknowledge the company security policy, as it ensures awareness and creates a formal, enforceable record of accountability for following the policy prohibiting personal devices.

Page 1 out of 45 Pages

CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) Exam: Practice Questions for Certification Success


CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) CS0-003 certification validates your skills in threat detection, analysis, and response using the latest security tools and techniques. Whether you are a security analyst, SOC professional, or threat hunter, earning the CySA+ proves your ability to proactively defend modern IT environments.

Whats New in CS0-003?

CySA+ (CS0-003) version, released in June 2023, reflects updated cybersecurity practices, including:

✔ Expanded cloud security coverage (AWS, Azure, hybrid environments)
✔ Enhanced focus on automation (SOAR, SIEM, scripting for security tasks)
✔ Threat intelligence integration (OSINT, dark web monitoring)
✔ Updated compliance frameworks (NIST, ISO, GDPR)
✔ Emphasis on zero trust and secure coding practices

Exam Domains & Weightings


Domain Weight
1.0 Security Operations (33%) 33%
2.0 Vulnerability Management (30%) 30%
3.0 Incident Response & Management (20%) 20%
4.0 Reporting & Compliance (17%) 17%


Who Should Take the CySA+ Exam?


This certification is ideal for:

Security Operations Center (SOC) Analysts
Threat Intelligence Analysts
Vulnerability Management Specialists
IT Auditors & Compliance Professionals
Mid-level cybersecurity professionals (with 3-4 years of experience)

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