CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Test

Explanation:

The scenario describes the need for controlling which applications can be installed on user devices (i.e. ensuring only company-approved software is allowed). This is precisely a function of Mobile Device Management (MDM) solutions.

An MDM platform allows IT administrators to:

Enforce app whitelisting or blacklisting
Push approved apps to devices
Prevent installation of unauthorized apps
Apply security compliance policies (e.g. encryption, passcodes)
Perform remote wipe if a device is lost or compromised

While “Mobile Device Management” sounds like it’s only for mobile phones or tablets, many modern MDM/Unified Endpoint Management (UEM) solutions also manage laptops and desktops (Windows, macOS, etc.).

Why not the others?

A. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) → Primarily focuses on detecting and responding to threats, not on application whitelisting and compliance control.

B. VPN (Virtual Private Network) → Provides secure remote connections but doesn’t manage software installations.

D. SaaS (Software as a Service) → Refers to cloud applications but doesn’t control device-level software installations.

Explanation:

The error message “Bootable device not found.” means the system can’t detect or access the storage device containing the operating system. Since the BIOS boot order is already verified as correct, the next logical step is to test whether the hard drive itself is failing or has logical errors.

Running built-in or vendor-supplied HDD diagnostics helps determine:

1. If the drive is physically failing
2. If there are corrupt boot sectors
3. If cabling or drive communication issues exist

Why not the others?

A. Reformat the HDD. → This wipes all data and OS — it’s too drastic without confirming the drive’s health first.

C. Reseat the RAM. → Memory issues can cause POST errors or crashes, but not typically “boot device not found” messages.

D. Replace the HDD. → Replacement costs time and money — only done if diagnostics prove the drive is bad.

Proper troubleshooting follows this order:

1. Check BIOS settings (already done)
2. Run diagnostics
3. Repair the boot sector or reinstall OS if necessary
4. Replace the drive only if proven faulty

Explanation:
The key symptom here is the bulge, which is pushing the screen away from the backplate. This is a classic and definitive sign of a swollen battery.

Why a Battery Swells:
Lithium-ion batteries can swell due to a fault in their internal chemistry, often caused by age (deprecation), physical damage, overheating, or being subjected to too many charge cycles. The swelling is caused by the buildup of gas inside the battery cell.

Corroborating Evidence:
The other symptoms align perfectly with a failed, swollen battery:

"Turns on when plugged in, but turns off when unplugged":
This indicates the battery can no longer hold a charge. The device only operates on AC power directly from the wall.

"Screen looks damaged":
The physical pressure from the swollen battery can crack the screen or damage the LCD from behind.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Malfunctioning power supply:
A bad power supply (charger) might prevent the device from charging or cause it to behave erratically, but it would not cause a physical bulge in the device's casing.

B. Damaged charge port:
A damaged charge port would make it difficult or impossible to charge the device. The tablet would not turn on even when plugged in, and it certainly would not cause the device to swell.

D. Broken screen:
A broken screen is a result of the problem, not the cause. The bulge from the swollen battery is what is damaging the screen. The screen itself breaking does not cause a device to swell or lose its ability to hold a charge.

Important Safety Note:
A swollen battery is a significant fire hazard. The technician should power the device off immediately, unplug it, and not attempt to charge or use it. The battery needs to be replaced by a professional, and the old battery must be disposed of properly according to local regulations for electronic waste.

Reference:
This question falls under the Hardware domain (1.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering mobile device repair and associated safety issues. It tests the ability to identify a failing battery based on clear physical and operational symptoms.

Explanation:
In the context of IT and networking, an "injector" almost always refers to a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector.

Here’s how it functions:
A PoE injector is a device that adds electrical power to an Ethernet cable.

It has three ports: a "Power IN" port, a "Data IN" port (from a network switch that does not provide PoE), and a "Data & Power OUT" port.

It takes a standard data signal from a network switch and "injects" DC power onto the same Ethernet cable.

This allows a single cable to provide both a data connection and electrical power to devices like VoIP phones, wireless access points, and security cameras, eliminating the need for a separate power outlet near the device.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. To provide only data connectivity:
This describes the function of a standard network switch or a simple Ethernet coupler, not an injector. The key feature of an injector is the addition of power.

C. To improve wireless performance:
This is the function of a wireless repeater, extender, or a more powerful access point. A PoE injector provides power to such devices but does not itself improve the wireless signal.

D. To extend a network connection:
This is the function of a network switch, a repeater, or a longer cable. While a PoE injector can be used in a setup that includes a device that extends a network (like a remote access point), the injector's sole job is to provide power, not to extend the signal.

Reference:
This question falls under the Networking domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering network infrastructure devices and their purposes. Understanding Power over Ethernet (PoE) and its related hardware is a key objective.

Explanation:
The combination of symptoms is a classic indicator of a malware infection:

Slow Internet Browsing:
Malware can consume bandwidth in the background or redirect traffic.

High CPU and Memory Usage:
Malicious processes are often poorly optimized and run intensive tasks, consuming significant system resources.

Frequent Pop-ups:
This is a very common and direct sign of adware, a specific type of malware designed to generate unwanted advertisements.

Given this clear evidence, the most logical and critical next step is to address the high probability of an infection before pursuing other, less likely causes.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Escalate to the network team to check end-to-end connectivity:
While network issues can cause slow browsing, they would not cause high local CPU/memory usage or system-level pop-ups. This step would be premature and incorrect given the full set of symptoms.

B. Download and install the latest drivers:
Outdated drivers can sometimes cause performance issues, but they do not cause pop-up advertisements. This would not resolve the core problem.

D. Check the wireless settings and validate the DHCP configuration:
Like option A, this only addresses the "slow browsing" symptom in isolation. Incorrect wireless or DHCP settings would not cause high CPU usage or pop-ups.

Reference:
This question falls under the Security domain (2.0) and Software Troubleshooting domain (3.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam. It tests the ability to correlate multiple symptoms to correctly identify a malware infection and follow the appropriate remediation procedure, which starts with updating and running a security scan.

Explanation:
This question tests the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. The technician has already progressed through the earlier steps:

Identify the problem:
The user reported performance issues.

Establish a theory of probable cause:
The technician has investigated and is now confident that the recent OS update is the root cause.

Test the theory to determine the cause:
The theory is tested by taking action—in this case, performing the rollback. If the performance issues are resolved after the rollback, it confirms the theory. Therefore, the next logical step after establishing a high-confidence theory is to implement the solution, which is to initiate the system restore to roll back the OS update.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Document the findings:
Documentation is a crucial final step in the process, performed after the solution has been implemented and verified. Doing it now is premature.

B. Investigate any recent infrastructure changes:
The technician has already identified a specific, high-probability cause (the OS update). Re-investigating other potential causes is inefficient and goes against the established confident theory.

D. Verify full system functionality:
This is the step that comes immediately after implementing the solution. You must perform the system restore first, and then verify that the performance issues are gone.

Reference:
This question falls under the Operational Procedures (4.0) domain of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically testing the knowledge of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology. The correct sequence is: Identify the Problem -> Establish a Theory -> Test the Theory -> Establish a Plan of Action -> Implement the Solution -> Verify Full System Functionality -> Document the Findings.

Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices to communicate when they are within a very short distance of each other—typically 4 cm (about 1.5 inches) or less.

Its primary purpose is to facilitate quick, simple, and secure communication between exactly two devices for tasks like:

Contactless payments (e.g., Google Pay, Apple Pay)

Pairing Bluetooth devices by simply tapping them together

Reading information from smart posters or tags

Transferring small files like contacts or links between phones

The key characteristics are its extremely short range and its focus on one-to-one communication.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Wired connections between several devices:
This is incorrect because NFC is, by definition, a wireless technology. It does not use cables.

C. Wireless connections between multiple devices at once:
This describes technologies like Wi-Fi. NFC is designed for simple, paired communication between two devices, not for creating a network between multiple devices.

D. Direct connection of two computers for file sharing:
While two devices can share a small file via NFC, this is not its primary or most common purpose. It's more often used for authentication, payments, and pairing. For general file sharing between computers, technologies like Wi-Fi Direct or a wired Ethernet connection are far more practical.

Reference:
This question falls under the Networking domain (2.0) and Mobile Devices domain (1.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam. It tests the understanding of different wireless technologies and their specific use cases, ranges, and capabilities.

Explanation:
A sandbox is a secure, isolated environment on a computer system where you can run or open untrusted programs or files without risking harm to the host machine.

How it works for malware testing:
When you open a suspicious file inside a sandbox, the software is allowed to execute, but its actions are contained within the virtual "walls" of the sandbox. It cannot access your actual operating system files, personal data, or network. Analysts can observe the file's behavior (e.g., what files it tries to modify, what network connections it attempts to make) to determine if it is malicious.

Purpose:
This is the primary and best method for dynamic analysis of potential malware, as it allows you to see what the code does without infecting a live system.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Multitenancy:
This is a software architecture where a single instance of software serves multiple customers ("tenants"). It is a core feature of cloud computing, not a security tool for testing files.

B. Test development:
This refers to the process of creating and writing tests for software code (e.g., unit tests, integration tests). It is a phase in the software development lifecycle, not a method for analyzing malware.

C. Cross-platform virtualization:
This refers to the ability to run an operating system on a computer with a different CPU architecture (e.g., running an ARM-based OS on an x86 machine). While a sandbox often uses virtualization technology, "cross-platform virtualization" is a specific technical feature, not the name of the security tool itself used for testing. "Sandbox" is the direct and correct term for this security practice.

Reference:
This question falls under the Security domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering security best practices, tools, and procedures for dealing with potential threats like malware.

Explanation:
A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch is a network switch that has built-in functionality to provide electrical power directly over the Ethernet cables to connected devices.

How it works:
It follows the IEEE standards (such as 802.3af, 802.3at, or 802.3bt) to send both data and low-voltage power over the standard twisted-pair Ethernet cables (typically using the unused wires or using a technique called phantom power on the data wires).

Purpose:
This eliminates the need for separate power adapters for devices that support PoE, such as:

Wireless Access Points (Option C)

VoIP phones

IP security cameras

Some thin clients

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Edge router:
This device connects a local network to other networks, such as the internet. Its primary function is routing traffic, not providing power.

C. Access point:
This device provides wireless connectivity to a wired network. It is a common recipient of power from a PoE switch or injector, but it does not provide power to other devices.

D. Patch panel:
This is a passive hardware component used for cable management in a network rack. It simply provides a central place to terminate and organize cable runs. It has no electronics and cannot provide electricity.

Reference:
This question falls under the Networking domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering the purpose and function of common network infrastructure devices. Understanding Power over Ethernet (PoE) and which devices provide it is a key objective.

Explanation:
The key phrase in the question is "when logging in to the console" of "network devices."

SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol specifically designed for operating network services securely over an unsecured network. Its primary use is for secure remote command-line login and command execution on network devices like switches, routers, and firewalls.

How it works:
SSH encrypts the entire session, including the login credentials and all commands executed, ensuring that all data communications during the console session are protected from eavesdropping.

Analysis of Other Options:

B. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol):
This is a protocol used for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services, like Microsoft Active Directory. It is used for user authentication, not for encrypting a console session on a network device. While LDAPS (LDAP over SSL) is encrypted, it is not used for device console access.

C. FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure):
This is a protocol for securely transferring files. It is used for moving data files between a client and a server, not for establishing a secure administrative command-line session on network equipment.

D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):
This is the standard protocol for sending email across the internet. It is unrelated to logging into network device consoles.

Reference:
This question falls under the Networking domain (2.0) and Security domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam. It tests the knowledge of specific network protocols and their appropriate use cases, with a focus on secure administration practices. The unsecured counterpart to SSH is Telnet, which should be disabled in favor of SSH.