CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Test

Explanation:
A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted communication channel over a public network like the internet. This allows workstations in different physical locations (e.g., a remote employee's home and the corporate office) to connect as if they were on the same local, private network.


Secured Communication Channel: VPNs use encryption protocols (like IPsec or OpenVPN) to create a secure "tunnel" for all data passing between the workstation and the corporate network, protecting it from interception.

Supported by Credentials for Authentication:
To establish the VPN connection, users must provide valid credentials, such as a username and password, a certificate, or multi-factor authentication (MFA). This ensures that only authorized individuals can access the secured channel.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol):
This protocol automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network. It does not create secure channels or involve user authentication; it is a basic network utility service.

B. CNAME (Canonical Name):
This is a type of DNS record that creates an alias for a domain name (e.g., making www.example.com point to example.com). It is related to domain name resolution and has nothing to do with creating secure communication channels.

C. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network):
This is a technology used to logically segment a physical network into multiple broadcast domains for performance and security. While it enhances security within a local network, it does not create a secured channel between different locations over the internet and does not typically use individual user credentials for its operation.

Reference:
This question falls under the Networking domain (2.0) and Security domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam. It tests the understanding of core security technologies, specifically the purpose and function of a VPN for enabling secure remote access

Explanation:
The key symptom here is the bulge, which is pushing the screen away from the backplate. This is a classic and definitive sign of a swollen battery.

Why a Battery Swells:
Lithium-ion batteries can swell due to a fault in their internal chemistry, often caused by age, physical damage, overheating, or being subjected to too many charge cycles. The swelling is caused by the buildup of gas inside the battery cell.

Corroborating Evidence:
The other symptoms align perfectly with a failed, swollen battery:

"Turns on when plugged in, but turns off when unplugged":
This indicates the battery can no longer hold a charge. The device only operates on AC power directly from the wall.

"Screen looks damaged":
The physical pressure from the swollen battery can crack the screen or damage the LCD from behind.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Malfunctioning power supply:
A bad power supply (charger) might prevent the device from charging or cause it to behave erratically, but it would not cause a physical bulge in the device's casing.

B. Damaged charge port:
A damaged charge port would make it difficult or impossible to charge the device. The tablet would not turn on even when plugged in, and it certainly would not cause the device to swell.

D. Broken screen:
A broken screen is a result of the problem, not the cause. The bulge from the swollen battery is what is damaging the screen. The screen itself breaking does not cause a device to swell or lose its ability to hold a charge.

Important Safety Note:
A swollen battery is a significant fire hazard. The technician should power the device off immediately, unplug it, and not attempt to charge or use it. The battery needs to be replaced by a professional, and the old battery must be disposed of properly according to local regulations for electronic waste.

Reference:
This question falls under the Hardware domain (1.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering mobile device repair and associated safety issues. It tests the ability to identify a failing battery based on clear physical and operational symptoms.

Explanation:
The specific clues in the question point directly to a physical problem with the device's charging port:

"The issue is usually resolved by flipping the cable over":
This is a classic symptom of a worn-out, dirty, or damaged Lightning port. The small pins inside the port can become bent, corroded, or covered in lint/debris over time. Flipping the cable changes which pins make contact, temporarily establishing a connection.

"This issue does not occur with other devices of the same type":
This critical detail rules out the cable as the primary culprit. If the same cable works perfectly and reliably on other identical devices, then the cable itself is not failing. The problem is isolated to this specific device's port.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. The device needs to be restarted:
While a software glitch can sometimes cause charging issues, it would not present with the specific symptom of working only when the cable is flipped over. A software issue would be more random and not consistently fixed by a physical action.

B. The battery may be swelling and needs inspection:
A swollen battery is a serious issue, but its symptoms are different. It would cause a visible bulge in the device's casing and likely prevent the device from working altogether, not cause an intermittent connection that is fixed by flipping a cable.

C. The cable is failing and needs to be replaced:
This is a very common cause of charging issues, but the question explicitly provides evidence against it by stating the cable works fine on other devices. Therefore, it cannot be the most likely cause in this specific scenario.

Reference:
This question falls under the Hardware domain (1.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering mobile device troubleshooting. It tests the ability to use key details to differentiate between a faulty cable and a faulty port, which is a common diagnostic task.

Explanation:
When a smartphone cannot connect to the wireless carrier's service at all (no signal bars), the issue is almost always related to the hardware or identity module that authenticates the phone with the carrier's network.

The Role of the SIM Card:
The SIM (Subscriber Identity Module) card is a small chip that uniquely identifies the user and their subscription to the mobile network. Without a valid, properly seated SIM card, the phone cannot register on the network to make calls, send texts, or use mobile data.

Why it's the First Check:
This is the most fundamental and easiest thing to check. The technician should:

Ensure the SIM card is properly inserted in its tray.

Reseat the SIM card by removing it and reinserting it.

Check for visible damage on the SIM card or in the phone's SIM tray.

Test the SIM card in a different, known-working phone to isolate the problem to either the SIM or the phone itself.

This follows the troubleshooting methodology of starting with the simplest physical component before moving to more complex software or account issues.

Analysis of Other Options:

B. Network settings:
While incorrect network settings (e.g., being set to "Airplane Mode" or the wrong network mode) can prevent a connection, a physical SIM issue is more common for a complete loss of service. Reseating the SIM is a faster check than digging through software settings.

C. Subscription plan:
This is an account/billing issue managed by the carrier. If the subscription were lapsed, the user would likely know, and the technician would have no direct way to check this without contacting the carrier. It is a less probable first cause than a physical SIM issue.

D. Bluetooth connection:
Bluetooth is a short-range wireless technology for connecting peripherals like headsets. It has no bearing on a phone's ability to connect to a cellular network from a wireless provider.

Reference:
This question falls under the Mobile Devices domain (1.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering the troubleshooting of common smartphone issues, particularly cellular connectivity. It tests the understanding of the core components required for a phone to connect to a carrier network.

Explanation:
An IP address in the 169.254.x.x range (with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0) is a sure sign of an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address.

What is APIPA?
This is a feature in modern operating systems (like Windows) that automatically assigns an IP address to a computer when it is configured to obtain an IP address dynamically (from a DHCP server) but cannot find one.

Why it Happens:
This "self-assignment" occurs when the computer's DHCP client broadcasts a request for an address but receives no offer from a DHCP server. This can be caused by: A disconnected network cable.

A malfunctioning network switch.

A downed or misconfigured DHCP server.

The computer being too far from the wireless access point (for Wi-Fi).

The address range 169.254.0.0/16 is reserved specifically for this self-configuration process, allowing the computer to have a local link address but isolating it from the broader network and internet.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. DHCP reservation assignment:
This is when a DHCP server is configured to always give a specific IP address to a specific device (based on its MAC address). The address assigned would be within the server's normal, defined scope (e.g., 192.168.1.100), not in the APIPA range.

B. Dynamic assignment:
This is the normal process where a computer receives an IP address from a DHCP server. The address would be from the server's defined pool (e.g., 192.168.1.x), not 169.254.x.x. The presence of a 169.254.x.x address indicates that dynamic assignment failed.

D. Static assignment:
This is when an IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers are manually entered into the network adapter's properties. A statically assigned address is a specific, user-defined address and would not be an APIPA address.

Reference:
This question falls under the Networking domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering IP addressing concepts and troubleshooting. Recognizing an APIPA address is a fundamental skill for diagnosing network connectivity problems.

Explanation:
While both a docking station and a port replicator expand a laptop's connection options, the key differentiator in the question is the phrase "specialized ports on a laptop."

Docking Station:
A docking station typically connects to a laptop via a proprietary, specialized port or connector designed specifically by the laptop manufacturer (e.g., Dell E-Port, Lenovo Ultra Dock). This single connection provides a wide array of ports, and it often includes additional functionality like:

Support for multiple external monitors.

Additional high-speed USB ports (including USB-C).

Ethernet, audio, and legacy ports.

The ability to charge the laptop.

Enhanced cooling or security features (like a Kensington lock slot).

The use of a proprietary, specialized port is the hallmark of a true docking station.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. NFC adapter:
This is a small device that plugs into a standard USB port to add Near Field Communication capability. It does not use a specialized laptop port, nor does it expand into multiple other ports; it adds one specific function.

C. Port replicator:
A port replicator is a simpler device that provides common ports (USB, Ethernet, video). However, it typically connects via a standardized port like USB-C or Thunderbolt, not a manufacturer-specific, specialized port. It is essentially a less-featured version of a docking station that uses universal connections.

D. USB dongle:
This is a generic term for a small adapter that plugs into a standard USB port to add a single function, such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or a cellular modem. It does not use a specialized port and does not provide a wide expansion of "local connection options."

Reference:
This question falls under the Hardware domain (1.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering laptop features and accessories. It tests the understanding of the distinction between a docking station (proprietary/specialized connection, more features) and a port replicator (standardized connection, basic port expansion).

Explanation:
A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network that connects devices within a limited geographical area, such as a home, office building, or single room.

Why it fits this scenario:
The friends are "gathering in a room." This defines a small, local area. They need to connect their gaming devices (laptops, consoles) to a local server hosted by one friend and also have shared access to the internet. A LAN is perfectly suited for this, typically created using a wireless router or a network switch.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. SAN (Storage Area Network):
This is a specialized, high-speed network that provides block-level access to data storage. It is used in enterprise data centers to connect servers to storage arrays, not for a group of friends playing video games in a room.

B. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network):
This is a large network that spans a city or a large campus (e.g., a network connecting all branches of a bank within a city). It covers a much larger area than a single room and is not something a group of users would set up themselves for a gaming session.

D. PAN (Personal Area Network):
This is a network for connecting devices centered around an individual person's workspace, typically within a range of a few meters. Examples include Bluetooth connections for a keyboard, mouse, or headset. While a PAN could technically connect a few devices, it is not designed or scalable for a group of people to all connect to a central server and the internet simultaneously. A LAN is the correct and standard term for this use case.

Reference:
This question falls under the Networking domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam, specifically covering network types and their characteristics. Understanding the differences between LAN, WAN, MAN, and PAN based on geographic scope is a fundamental objective.

Explanation:
A sandbox in the context of virtualization and security is an isolated testing environment that allows you to execute or open files without affecting the host machine or the wider network.

Primary Function:
Its core purpose is to enforce strict isolation. This includes network isolation. A virtual machine running inside a secure sandbox is often deliberately disconnected from the physical network to prevent any potential malware from spreading or communicating with external command-and-control servers.

Result:
This configuration would indeed prevent the virtual machine from communicating with any other endpoints on the network or the internet, which is exactly what the question describes.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure):
VDI is a technology that hosts desktop environments on a central server and delivers them to end-users. These virtual desktops are meant to communicate with network resources and the internet to be functional for users. Network connectivity is a core feature, not something it prevents.

B. Private cloud:
This is a cloud computing model where the infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization. It is a deployment model, not a feature that blocks network communication. Virtual machines in a private cloud are typically fully networked.

D. Type 1 hypervisor:
Also known as a "bare-metal" hypervisor, this is software that runs directly on the host's hardware to manage virtual machines (e.g., VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V). The hypervisor itself does not prevent network communication; in fact, it provides virtual switches that are used to enable network connectivity for the VMs. The network configuration of the VM (like being attached to an isolated network) determines connectivity, not the hypervisor type itself.

Reference:
This question falls under the Virtualization and Cloud Computing domain (4.0) and Security domain (2.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam. It tests the understanding of different virtualization concepts and their security implications, specifically the purpose of a sandbox as an isolated, non-networked environment.

Explanation:
MDM (Mobile Device Management) is a type of software used to manage, secure, and enforce policies on a fleet of enterprise devices, such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets.

The core concern of the management team is a lack of controls on enterprise devices. MDM is specifically designed to address this by allowing an administrator to centrally implement and enforce controls, such as:

Enforcing password policies and encryption.

Remotely wiping a device if it is lost or stolen.

Controlling which applications can be installed (whitelisting/blacklisting).

Pushing mandatory software updates and security configurations.

Tracking device inventory and compliance.

Analysis of Other Options:

B. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication):
This is a security control for user authentication, not for device management. It adds a layer of security to logins but does not provide overarching control over the device's settings, apps, or policies.

C. VPN (Virtual Private Network):
This is a tool for creating a secure network connection over the internet. It provides secure remote access but does not implement general controls on the device itself.

D. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer):
This is an encryption protocol for securing data in transit over a network (e.g., for HTTPS websites). It is a communication security technology, not a device management solution.

Reference:
This question falls under the Security domain (2.0) and Operational Procedures (3.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam. It tests the understanding of different security tools, specifically identifying MDM as the solution for centralizing control and enforcing policies on enterprise-owned devices.

Explanation:
The core problem described is unexpected server downtime from two causes:

Storms causing power outages (which the new UPSs are meant to solve).

A hardware failure of a Power Supply Unit (PSU).

The question states that the UPS solution is delayed. Therefore, we need a cost-effective solution that addresses the other cause of downtime—PSU hardware failure—while they wait for the UPSs to arrive.

Redundant PSUs:
Many servers have the capability to be equipped with two or more power supplies. These are connected to separate power circuits. If one PSU fails (like in the scenario), the other one instantly and automatically takes over the entire load, preventing the server from shutting down. This provides high availability for a specific, common point of hardware failure.

Cost-Effectiveness:
Installing a redundant PSU is a relatively low-cost solution compared to the other options, as it only involves a hardware component for the server itself and does not require major construction or infrastructure changes.

Analysis of Other Options:

A. Purchasing backup generators:
A backup generator is a fantastic solution for prolonged power outages (like those from storms), and it would work in tandem with a UPS. However, it is not cost-effective for this interim period. It is a major capital expense and requires significant installation, including fuel lines and electrical work. It solves the storm problem but is overkill and too expensive for the stated goal.

B. Increasing input voltage:
This is not a valid or safe solution. Servers and their PSUs are designed to operate at a specific voltage (e.g., 120V or 240V in the US). Deliberately increasing the input voltage would likely damage or destroy the server's components.

D. Activating a hot site:
A hot site is a fully operational, ready-to-go duplicate of the primary data center at a remote location. It is used for disaster recovery in the event of a complete site failure. This is the most expensive option of all and is not a cost-effective way to protect against a single server's PSU failure or a local power outage.

Reference:
This question falls under the Hardware domain (1.0) and Operational Procedures (3.0) of the CompTIA A+ 220-1201 exam. It tests the ability to evaluate different power and hardware redundancy concepts and select an appropriate, cost-effective solution for a given scenario.