CompTIA 220-1202 Practice Test

Explanation:

Problem: The user is being interrupted by alerts and notifications during videoconference calls on Windows 11.

Goal: Minimize or eliminate interruptions from notifications without affecting other system functions.

Option D: Set Windows Notifications settings to Do Not Disturb

Windows 11 has a Focus Assist feature, which includes Do Not Disturb mode.
When enabled, Do Not Disturb suppresses notifications, pop-ups, and alerts temporarily.
This is the ideal way to avoid interruptions during meetings or presentations while keeping the system running normally.

Why the other options are less appropriate:

A. Use multiple sound output devices for the various source applications
This doesn’t stop notifications; it only routes sounds differently.
Alerts will still pop up and distract the user visually.

B. Disable all notifications in different applications in the order they appear
Time-consuming and inefficient.
Users might miss important notifications outside the meeting.
Do Not Disturb is a better, centralized control.

C. Configure the Sounds option in Control Panel to be set to No Sounds
This only disables sound alerts, but visual notifications will still appear.
The interruptions are still present, just silent, which can still be distracting.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (A. Provide user education):

📚 Providing user education is a vital step following a phishing incident because it addresses the root cause: user awareness. Many cybersecurity breaches happen due to human error, such as clicking on malicious links. By training users on how to recognize phishing attempts, suspicious emails, and unsafe behaviors, organizations reduce the chances of future incidents. This education empowers employees to act cautiously and reinforces best security practices, complementing technical controls. It is a proactive and sustainable way to improve the company’s security posture.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

📝 B. Compile lessons learned involves analyzing the incident after the fact to understand what happened, why, and how to improve processes or defenses. Although this is an important step in incident response, it is an internal review process and does not directly educate or change user behavior, which is critical in phishing scenarios.

🛡️ C. Update the antivirus software is a reactive, technical measure that ensures antivirus definitions are current to detect malware. While necessary, it does not help users identify or avoid phishing attacks, which rely on social engineering rather than malware alone.

🔍 D. Perform additional scans involves scanning systems to find leftover threats after an attack. This is a cleanup activity focused on technical remediation, not on training or preventing users from clicking malicious links in the future.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (C. Escalate the ticket to the next level):
When a technician resolves a network drive issue temporarily but the problem reoccurs, it indicates that the root cause has not been fully addressed. Escalating the ticket to the next level means passing it to more experienced or specialized IT staff who have the expertise to perform deeper diagnostics and implement a long-term solution. This approach prevents repeated interruptions and user frustration while improving overall system reliability. Escalation also helps in tracking unresolved issues systematically and ensures accountability for full resolution.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Connect remotely to the user's computer to see whether the network drive is still connected:
Simply reconnecting to check the network drive status after the issue recurs is a reactive step that does not address the underlying cause of the problem. It is unlikely to provide new information or solve the repeated disconnection, potentially leading to wasted time and resources. The recurring nature of the issue suggests that more in-depth troubleshooting or different expertise is needed, making mere observation insufficient.

B. Send documentation about how to fix the issue in case it reoccurs:
Providing documentation assumes that the end user can troubleshoot and fix network drive issues independently, which may not be realistic for most users. Network connectivity problems often involve permissions, server configurations, or network infrastructure issues that users cannot resolve. This action might delay proper resolution and increase frustration, as the user would still rely on IT support for actual fixes.

D. Keep the ticket open until next day, then close the ticket:
Leaving the ticket open without addressing the recurrence properly and then closing it prematurely ignores the ongoing problem. This approach risks user dissatisfaction and repeated disruptions to their workflow. Proper resolution requires identifying the root cause, not just delaying closure. Closing a ticket without a verified fix undermines support quality and can lead to repeated help desk requests.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answers (D. Start the print spooler service, E. Set the print spooler to Automatic):
The print spooler is a critical Windows service that manages all print jobs sent to the printer. If the print spooler service is stopped or not running, print jobs will fail. Starting the print spooler service (D) ensures that the printing process can begin. However, if the service is not set to Automatic (E), it may not start automatically when the computer boots, causing the issue to recur daily. Setting the print spooler service to Automatic makes sure it starts every time the system boots, providing a permanent fix so the user won’t have to rely on help desk intervention each day.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Set the print spooler to have no dependencies:
Dependencies ensure that the print spooler service starts only after its required system services are running, such as RPC. Removing dependencies may cause the spooler to start improperly or fail due to missing required services, potentially causing more issues rather than fixing the printing problem.

B. Set the print spooler recovery to take no action:
Configuring the spooler service recovery to “no action” means the service won’t attempt to restart automatically after a failure. This would not solve the recurring problem but instead reduce the system’s ability to recover from errors, leading to longer downtime.

C. Start the printer extensions and notifications service:
While this service provides additional features like printer notifications, it is not essential for basic printing or resolving spooler failures. Starting it alone will not fix issues caused by the print spooler service being stopped or not starting automatically.

F. Set the print spooler log-on to the user's account:
Changing the print spooler service to run under a user account is not standard practice and can cause permission and stability issues. The spooler typically runs under the Local System account for proper access and functionality. This is unlikely to fix the recurring printing problem.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (C. DHCP services are not enabled for this subnet):
In a secure network segment where DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is disabled or not available, devices cannot automatically obtain IP addressing information such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. Without DHCP, each workstation must be manually assigned a static IP address to communicate on the network. Therefore, the network engineering team provides the help desk technician with the correct IP addressing information so the deployed workstations can be properly configured and connected. This ensures devices function correctly within the secure subnet.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Only specific DNS servers are allowed outbound access:
While controlling which DNS servers can be used is a security measure, it does not directly require help desk technicians to have IP addressing information. DNS server restrictions focus on name resolution, not initial IP assignment. This option does not explain why static IP addresses would be necessary.

B. The network allow list is set to a specific address:
Network allow lists (whitelisting) restrict access to certain IP addresses or MAC addresses but do not explain why DHCP would be unavailable or why IP addressing information must be manually assigned. Allow lists are about access control, not IP assignment methods.

D. NAC servers only allow for security updates to be installed:
Network Access Control (NAC) servers enforce compliance and security policies, such as allowing only compliant devices to access the network or install updates. However, this does not affect how IP addressing is assigned. NAC relates to policy enforcement rather than DHCP or static IP assignment.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (C. Close unnecessary programs):
The Task Manager shows that the computer’s memory usage is at 97%, which is very high, indicating that the system is running out of available RAM. When memory is nearly full, the computer slows down because it starts using slower disk space (paging) to compensate. Closing unnecessary programs frees up RAM, reducing memory pressure and improving system responsiveness. This is the most direct and effective way to address performance issues caused by high memory usage without requiring hardware upgrades or file cleanups.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Clear browser cached data:
Clearing cached data may free up some disk space and slightly improve browser performance but won’t significantly affect overall system memory or CPU usage. The primary bottleneck here is high RAM consumption, so clearing browser cache will not resolve the slowdown.

B. Upgrade the network connection:
The network usage is only 12%, indicating no network bottleneck. Improving network speed would not solve the problem because the slow performance is linked to local resource constraints, especially memory, not network bandwidth.

D. Delete temporary files:
Deleting temporary files can free some disk space but has minimal impact on memory usage or CPU load. Since the Task Manager shows very high memory usage, cleaning temporary files won’t effectively improve the system’s speed or application response times.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (A. Check the data usage limit):
When a user cannot upload files from a mobile device while outside the office but can do so within the office, it suggests a possible limitation related to the mobile data plan or device settings. Many mobile devices and carriers enforce data usage limits or caps that restrict certain activities, such as large file uploads, once a threshold is reached. Checking the data usage limit helps determine if the user’s mobile data plan or device settings are preventing uploads outside the office network, which may have no such restrictions.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

B. Enable airplane mode:
Enabling airplane mode disables all wireless communications (cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth), which would prevent any network connectivity. This action would not help diagnose upload issues but rather stop all data transmission, making the problem worse or harder to investigate.

C. Verify the last device reboot:
While restarting a device can resolve some connectivity issues, it is unlikely to explain why uploads work in the office but not outside. Device reboots do not affect network restrictions or data limits imposed by the mobile carrier or device settings.

D. Enable Bluetooth connectivity:
Bluetooth is unrelated to uploading files to corporate servers, which typically use Wi-Fi or cellular data. Enabling Bluetooth would not influence the ability to upload files and is irrelevant to the network connectivity problem described.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (D. NDA):
An NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) is a legal contract that protects sensitive or confidential information from being shared with unauthorized parties. When discussing confidential work projects with individuals outside the company, an NDA ensures that those individuals understand their obligation to keep the information private and not disclose it to others. This agreement is crucial to protect intellectual property, trade secrets, and any proprietary information during collaborations or communications with external parties.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. EULA (End User License Agreement):
An EULA is a legal contract between software developers and users, outlining the terms of software use. It does not govern the sharing of confidential company information or discussions about work projects with external individuals.

B. EOL (End of Life):
EOL refers to the point at which a product or software is no longer supported or maintained by the manufacturer. It has no relevance to confidentiality or communication about sensitive projects.

C. SLA (Service Level Agreement):
An SLA is a contract that defines the expected level of service between a provider and a customer, such as uptime guarantees or response times. It does not cover confidentiality or information-sharing agreements.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (A. Resolve the dependency through the 'Turn Windows features on or off' menu):
The .NET Framework 3.5 is a Windows feature that many applications depend on, especially older or legacy software. Windows allows enabling or disabling this framework via the 'Turn Windows features on or off' control panel. Enabling the .NET Framework 3.5 through this menu installs the required components properly and ensures compatibility with applications that need it. This is the safest and most reliable method because it uses official Microsoft sources, preventing compatibility or security issues.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

B. Download the dependency via a third-party repository:
Downloading system frameworks from unofficial sources can expose the system to malware or corrupted files, posing significant security risks. It also risks installing incompatible versions or counterfeit software, making this option unsafe and unadvisable.

C. Ignore the dependency and install the latest version 4 instead:
Installing the latest .NET Framework version does not guarantee backward compatibility with applications that explicitly require version 3.5. Many applications rely on specific versions, so ignoring the requirement will not resolve the issue.

D. Forward the trouble ticket to the SOC team because the issue poses a great security risk:
The Security Operations Center (SOC) team handles security incidents, not routine application or software dependency issues. This problem is a standard software requirement, so escalating it to SOC is inappropriate and inefficient.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (B. Discuss the cause of the issue and educate the end user about security hygiene):
After containing and removing the malware (including quarantining and reimaging the affected system), the next critical step is to address the human factor—user behavior. Educating the end user about security hygiene, such as recognizing phishing attempts, avoiding suspicious links, and practicing safe browsing habits, helps prevent similar incidents in the future. Since phishing often exploits human vulnerabilities, user training is a vital part of a comprehensive security strategy and reduces the risk of repeat infections.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Install network security tools to prevent downloading infected files from the internet:
While network security tools like web filters and firewalls are important for defense in depth, this should be part of an ongoing security plan, not the immediate next step after incident containment. The user’s awareness remains a key factor that must be addressed first.

C. Flash the firmware of the router to ensure the integrity of network traffic:
Firmware flashing is a complex and specialized task generally reserved for suspected firmware-level compromises. There is no indication the router was involved in the attack, so this step is unnecessary and inefficient at this point.

D. Suggest alternate preventative controls that would include more advanced security software:
Upgrading security software can help improve defenses but doesn’t directly address the root cause of phishing attacks—user behavior. Without educating users, even the best tools may be circumvented by social engineering attacks.