CompTIA 220-1202 Practice Test

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (A. To ensure that all removable media is password protected in case of loss or theft):
BitLocker To Go is a feature of Microsoft Windows designed specifically to encrypt removable storage devices such as USB drives. The main purpose of training staff on BitLocker To Go is to make sure that any sensitive data stored on removable media is protected by encryption and requires a password or recovery key to access. This protects the organization’s data in case devices are lost or stolen, preventing unauthorized access and data breaches. Training users ensures consistent application of this security measure across the organization.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

B. To enable Secure Boot and a BIOS-level password to prevent configuration changes:
Secure Boot and BIOS passwords are hardware and firmware security measures that protect system startup and prevent unauthorized changes. These features are unrelated to BitLocker To Go, which focuses on encrypting removable media, not system boot security.

C. To enforce VPN connectivity to be encrypted by hardware modules:
VPN encryption protects data in transit over networks but is unrelated to BitLocker To Go. BitLocker To Go is concerned with data at rest on removable drives, not network security or VPN connections.

D. To configure all laptops to use the TPM as an encryption factor for hard drives:
Using the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) for encryption is part of BitLocker Drive Encryption for internal drives, not BitLocker To Go. BitLocker To Go specifically protects removable media, not laptop hard drives.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (D. su):
The su (substitute user or switch user) command in Linux is widely used for administrative purposes. It allows a user to switch to another user account, typically the superuser (root), which has elevated privileges necessary for system administration tasks. By using su, administrators can perform actions that require higher permissions, such as installing software, modifying system files, or managing user accounts. This command is fundamental for managing Linux systems securely and efficiently.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. runas:
This command is specific to Windows operating systems and allows users to run programs with different user credentials, often administrative. It is not a Linux command.

B. cmcl:
There is no standard Linux command named cmcl. This option appears to be incorrect or a typo.

C. net user:
net user is a Windows command used for managing user accounts on Windows machines. It does not exist in Linux and therefore is not applicable for Linux administrative tasks.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (D. Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization):
When a smartphone’s battery discharges quickly, especially soon after a replacement, the first step should be to identify any apps that are consuming excessive battery power. Some apps may run continuously in the background, using CPU, network, or GPS resources, which can drain the battery faster than usual. By reviewing battery usage statistics and identifying resource-heavy applications, the technician can recommend disabling or uninstalling problematic apps, optimizing settings, or applying updates to reduce battery drain, offering a targeted and effective solution.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Replace the battery with a higher capacity option:
Replacing the battery with a higher capacity one is usually not practical or necessary if the current battery is new. It is also difficult on smartphones since most have fixed batteries. Jumping to hardware replacement without diagnostics can lead to unnecessary costs.

B. Provide an external battery to extend the usage time:
While an external battery pack (power bank) can temporarily extend usage, it is a workaround rather than a fix. Without understanding the cause of rapid discharge, providing external power does not solve the root problem.

C. Ensure that the charging port is working as expected:
The charging port affects the ability to charge, but since the battery was recently replaced, the problem is more likely related to power consumption rather than charging capability. Checking apps’ battery usage is a more direct first step.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (A. The OS is end-of-life):
When a user cannot run the latest version of an app on a legacy tablet, the most common reason is that the tablet’s operating system (OS) is end-of-life (EOL). This means the OS is no longer supported or updated by the manufacturer, and newer app versions may require features or security updates only available on supported OS versions. Developers often stop supporting outdated OS versions, so apps won’t install or run properly, forcing users to upgrade their OS or hardware.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

B. Space is inadequate:
Insufficient storage can prevent app installation or updates, but this typically results in a specific error about storage space. Since the question highlights that the issue is related to using the latest app version on a legacy device, OS compatibility is a more likely cause than storage.

C. MDM is blocking updates:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) can restrict app updates or installations, but this is usually an administrative policy. There’s no indication that management restrictions are in place here, making this a less likely explanation.

D. The tablet is infected with malware:
Malware infections can cause performance issues or app malfunctions but rarely prevent app updates directly. Additionally, malware infections are less common on legacy tablets, especially if the device is isolated or limited in functionality.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (B. Use antistatic bags for storage and transport):
When handling and removing RAM modules, it is critical to protect them from electrostatic discharge (ESD), which can permanently damage sensitive electronic components. Antistatic bags are specially designed to shield computer parts like RAM from static electricity during storage and transport. Using antistatic bags helps ensure the RAM modules remain functional and safe until they are installed in new workstations or properly stored, making this the best practice for handling retired workstation memory.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Demagnetize memory for security:
RAM is not magnetic storage media like hard drives or tapes. Demagnetizing is used to securely erase magnetic data storage but is irrelevant to volatile memory modules like RAM, which lose their data once power is removed.

C. Plug in the power supply to ground each workstation:
Grounding the workstation’s power supply does not prevent static discharge when handling internal components. Proper grounding is typically done using an antistatic wrist strap or mat, not by simply plugging in the power supply.

D. Install memory in identical pairs:
While installing RAM in matched pairs can improve performance by enabling dual-channel mode, this is not related to the safe removal, storage, or transport of RAM from retired workstations. It is a hardware configuration consideration rather than a safety or handling procedure.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (C. Close unnecessary programs):
The Task Manager indicates that the memory (RAM) usage is at 97%, which is critically high and likely causing the system to slow down. When memory is nearly fully utilized, the computer resorts to using slower disk space (paging), significantly degrading performance. Closing unnecessary programs frees up memory resources, reducing pressure on the system and improving responsiveness. This action targets the root cause—excessive memory consumption—making it the most effective and immediate solution.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Clear browser cached data:
Clearing cached data can free some disk space and possibly improve browser speed but does not affect overall system memory usage or CPU load. Since the main bottleneck is memory, this action won’t significantly improve the computer’s performance.

B. Upgrade the network connection:
Network usage is only at 12%, showing no network bottleneck. Upgrading the network connection will not address slow application responses or high memory usage, so it’s unrelated to the problem.

D. Delete temporary files:
Deleting temporary files can free disk space but has minimal impact on memory usage or CPU load. Since the Task Manager shows very high memory use, cleaning temp files is unlikely to resolve the slowdown.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (B. The OS will be considered end of life):
When an administrator receives a notification that an operating system (OS) will no longer receive security updates and patches, it means the OS is approaching or has reached its end of life (EOL). At EOL, the vendor stops providing technical support, security fixes, and updates, which leaves systems running that OS vulnerable to new threats and bugs. Organizations are encouraged to upgrade to supported OS versions to maintain security and compliance.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Support from the computer’s manufacturer is expiring:
Manufacturer support typically refers to hardware warranties or device-specific services, not OS security updates. While hardware support expiration can affect device maintenance, it doesn’t directly impact OS patch availability.

C. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version:
Security software removal is unrelated to stopping OS updates. Even if built-in security changes occur in new OS versions, this does not explain why the current OS will no longer receive patches.

D. A new version of the OS will be released soon:
While new OS releases often coincide with the end of support for older versions, this is not the direct reason for ceasing security updates. The key factor is the official EOL status, not just the upcoming release.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (B. Educate the end user):
After successfully removing malware from a system, the next critical step is to educate the end user on how to avoid similar infections in the future. User education helps address the root cause of many malware incidents, such as falling for phishing scams, downloading unsafe files, or visiting malicious websites. Teaching users about safe computing practices reduces the likelihood of reinfection and strengthens the organization’s overall security posture. This step complements technical remediation by targeting human behavior.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Perform a secondary antivirus scan:
While running an additional scan can verify that the malware has been fully removed, this is typically done during the removal process. After malware removal is confirmed, further scanning is less urgent compared to user education.

C. Reimage the computer:
Reimaging is a more drastic step, usually performed before or during malware removal if the infection is severe. After removal, reimaging is not always necessary unless residual issues remain.

D. Review system logs:
Reviewing logs is important for understanding how the infection occurred and monitoring for future attacks, but it is usually done earlier in the incident response process. User education is the more immediate next step after removal.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (C. MDR):
Managed Detection and Response (MDR) is a service where a third-party vendor monitors an organization’s assets using multiple security tools and provides threat detection, response, and remediation. MDR combines technology with human expertise to proactively identify and mitigate security incidents. This service is ideal for organizations that want advanced security monitoring but lack the internal resources or expertise to handle complex threats themselves, making it the best fit for the scenario described.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. PaaS (Platform as a Service):
PaaS provides a cloud platform for developers to build and deploy applications. It does not involve security monitoring or incident response services and is unrelated to third-party security vendors protecting assets.

B. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response):
EDR is a technology focused on detecting and responding to threats at endpoints (computers, servers). While part of the MDR solution, EDR alone does not typically include the full managed service and human analysis provided by MDR.

D. XDR (Extended Detection and Response):
XDR integrates threat detection across multiple security layers like endpoints, networks, and cloud environments but usually refers to technology solutions rather than managed services. MDR often leverages XDR tools but emphasizes the managed, outsourced aspect.

Explanation:

✅ Correct Answer (C. Performing a low-level format):
A low-level format (also known as a full format) overwrites the entire hard drive, removing all data and making it unrecoverable by typical recovery methods. Unlike deleting partitions or simple file deletion, which only removes references to data, a low-level format actually writes over the data sectors. Importantly, this process allows the drive to be reused or repurposed because the physical drive remains intact and functional after the format, making it a practical choice for securely erasing data while preserving the hardware.

❌ Incorrect Answers:

A. Deleting the partitions:
Deleting partitions only removes the pointers to the data but does not erase the data itself. The underlying information remains on the drive and can often be recovered using data recovery tools, so it’s not a secure way to make data unrecoverable.

B. Implementing EFS (Encrypting File System):
EFS encrypts files to protect their confidentiality but does not delete or overwrite data. If the encryption keys are compromised or available, the data can still be accessed. EFS does not make data unrecoverable or prepare the drive for repurposing.

D. Degaussing the device:
Degaussing uses a strong magnetic field to erase data on magnetic media like traditional hard drives. However, it typically renders the drive unusable afterward, preventing the drive from being repurposed. Therefore, it’s not suitable when the drive needs to be reused.