Free CompTIA 220-1202 Practice Questions 2026 - Page 11

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A technician is troubleshooting an issue in which a service runs momentarily and stops at certain points in the process. The technician needs to determine the root cause of this issue. Which of the following tools should the technician use?

A. Event Viewer

B. Task Manager

C. Internet Options

D. Process Explorer

A.   Event Viewer

Explanation:

Event Viewer is a Windows tool that logs system events, including errors, warnings, and information messages. If a service starts and then stops, Event Viewer records entries explaining why—such as permission errors, missing files, or crashes. This makes it the best tool to identify the root cause of a service repeatedly stopping.

Wrong Answers

B. Task Manager
Task Manager shows running processes and services in real time but doesn’t provide detailed error logs or historical information about why a service failed. It’s helpful for seeing if a service is currently running but not for diagnosing why it stopped.

C. Internet Options
Internet Options is used to configure browser settings, privacy, and security for Internet Explorer or Edge. It has no relevance for troubleshooting services running on the operating system.

D. Process Explorer
Process Explorer, a more advanced tool than Task Manager, shows detailed information about running processes. While useful for real-time monitoring, it doesn’t provide error logs or event history like Event Viewer does, so it’s less effective for finding the root cause of a service stopping.

A user reports some single sign-on errors to a help desk technician. Currently, the user is able to sign in to the company's application portal but cannot access a specific SaaS-based tool. Which of the following would the technician most likely suggest as a next step?

A. Reenroll the user's mobile device to be used as an MFA token

B. Use a private browsing window to avoid local session conflicts

C. Bypass single sign-on by directly authenticating to the application

D. Reset the device being used to factory defaults

B.   Use a private browsing window to avoid local session conflicts

Explanation:

Single sign-on (SSO) uses cached sessions and cookies to authenticate users across multiple applications. Sometimes, session conflicts or corrupted cookies cause SSO errors with specific tools, even though other apps work fine. Using a private browsing window (incognito mode) bypasses saved cookies and sessions, allowing a fresh login that often resolves SSO issues without major changes.

Wrong Answers

A. Reenroll the user's mobile device to be used as an MFA token
MFA tokens help secure authentication but are unrelated to session conflicts. The user can sign in to the portal, suggesting MFA is working properly. The problem is isolated to one SaaS app under the same SSO environment.

C. Bypass single sign-on by directly authenticating to the application
Bypassing SSO could lead to policy violations, inconsistent access rights, and user confusion. Companies use SSO to simplify authentication and centralize security. It’s better to fix SSO issues than bypass them.

D. Reset the device being used to factory defaults
Factory resetting is an extreme step for a minor SSO problem. It risks data loss and unnecessary downtime. The issue likely lies in browser sessions, not the device’s entire system.

An administrator received an email stating that the OS they are currently supporting will no longer receive security updates and patches. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A. Support from the computer’s manufacturer is expiring

B. The OS will be considered end of life

C. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version

D. A new version of the OS will be released soon

B.   The OS will be considered end of life

Explanation:

When an OS reaches end of life (EOL), the vendor stops providing security updates, patches, and technical support. Running an EOL OS creates security risks because new vulnerabilities remain unpatched. Administrators receiving such emails need to plan upgrades or migrations to supported versions to maintain security compliance.

Wrong Answers

A. Support from the computer’s manufacturer is expiring
Hardware manufacturers may stop supporting drivers or warranty services, but that’s separate from the OS vendor ending security updates. OS support is determined by the software vendor (e.g., Microsoft, Apple), not the computer’s manufacturer.

C. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version
Changes to built-in security tools might happen in newer versions, but this does not affect whether the current OS receives security updates. EOL status is the reason updates stop, not removal of specific tools.

D. A new version of the OS will be released soon
While new OS versions often prompt EOL announcements, simply releasing a new version doesn’t automatically stop updates for older ones. EOL is a separate, formal milestone where support and patches officially end.

The battery on a user’s smartphone discharges quickly during travel. The phone was replaced two weeks ago. What should the technician do first?

A. Replace the battery with a higher capacity option

B. Provide an external battery

C. Ensure the charging port is working

D. Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization

D.   Look for applications that are reporting the highest utilization

Explanation:

If a phone battery drains quickly—even on a new phone—the issue is often software-related rather than a hardware problem. Apps running in the background, location services, or high data usage can rapidly consume power. The first step a technician should take is to check the phone’s battery usage report to see which apps or services are draining the most power. Addressing software causes can solve the problem without unnecessary replacements or accessories.

Wrong Answers

A. Replace the battery with a higher capacity option
Replacing the battery is unnecessary if the phone is only two weeks old and the real issue might be app usage. Also, many modern smartphones have non-removable batteries, making this impractical without further diagnosis.

B. Provide an external battery
While helpful for extending usage, giving an external battery is a workaround, not a solution. It doesn’t address the root cause of why the battery is draining quickly.

C. Ensure the charging port is working
A faulty charging port affects charging, not battery drain. Since the question is about fast discharging rather than charging issues, the charging port is less likely to be the immediate cause.

Which of the following describes a vulnerability that has been exploited before a patch or remediation is available?

A. Spoofing

B. Brute-force

C. DoS

D. Zero-day

D.   Zero-day

Explanation:

A zero-day vulnerability is a software flaw that is exploited by attackers before the software vendor has released a patch or fix. Because there’s no official solution available yet, zero-day attacks can be very dangerous and hard to defend against. The term “zero-day” refers to the fact that developers have had zero days to fix the problem once it becomes publicly known or exploited.

Wrong Answers

A. Spoofing
Spoofing is when an attacker disguises their identity—for example, faking an email address or IP address—to trick users or systems. While spoofing can be part of an attack, it’s not defined by exploiting unknown, unpatched vulnerabilities.

B. Brute-force
Brute-force attacks involve systematically trying all possible passwords or keys until the correct one is found. Brute-force attacks don’t rely on exploiting unknown software flaws, but rather on guessing credentials or encryption.

C. DoS (Denial of Service)
A DoS attack floods a system or network with traffic to make it unavailable to legitimate users. While it disrupts services, it doesn’t specifically involve exploiting a newly discovered, unpatched vulnerability like a zero-day attack does.

Which of the following is found in an MSDS sheet for a battery backup?

A. Installation instructions

B. Emergency procedures

C. Configuration steps

D. Voltage specifications

B.   Emergency procedures

Explanation:

An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), now often called an SDS (Safety Data Sheet), provides safety information about hazardous materials. For a battery backup (like a UPS), the MSDS includes details on emergency procedures—such as what to do in case of leaks, spills, fire, or exposure to chemicals inside the battery (e.g., lead-acid or lithium). It also contains handling, storage, and disposal guidelines to ensure worker safety.

Wrong Answers

A. Installation instructions
Installation instructions explain how to physically set up the equipment but are not included in an MSDS. MSDS documents focus on safety, not operational steps.

C. Configuration steps
Configuration details are about setting software or hardware options. They’re found in user manuals or technical guides, not in MSDS documents.

D. Voltage specifications
Voltage specs describe how much electrical power the device uses or supplies. These appear in technical datasheets, not MSDS documents. MSDS sheets focus on chemical safety and emergency measures, not electrical characteristics.

A desktop technician is mapping a remote Windows share \\WinNAS\shared as local drive Z:. Which command should the technician run?

A. nslookup -opt 3: \WinNAS\shared

B. net use 3: \WinNAS\shared

C. chkdsk /R 2: \WinNAS\shared

D. sfc /offwindir 3: \WinNAS\shared

B.   net use 3: \WinNAS\shared

Explanation:

To map a network share in Windows and assign it a local drive letter, the technician uses the net use command. The syntax is:

net use Z: \\WinNAS\shared

This creates a connection so the remote share appears as local drive Z: in File Explorer.

Wrong Answers

A. nslookup -opt 3: \WinNAS\shared
nslookup is used for DNS queries. It’s unrelated to mapping network drives and cannot connect to network shares.

C. chkdsk /R 2: \WinNAS\shared
chkdsk checks and repairs disk errors. It’s not used for mapping drives and cannot operate on network paths directly.

D. sfc /offwindir 3: \WinNAS\shared
sfc (System File Checker) scans and repairs Windows system files. It’s unrelated to network drive mapping and doesn’t work with network shares.

Which of the following is used to apply corporate restrictions on an Apple device?

A. App Store

B. VPN configuration

C. Apple ID

D. Management profile

D.   Management profile

Explanation:

A management profile is used to apply corporate restrictions and settings to Apple devices (iPhones, iPads, and Macs). These profiles are installed via Mobile Device Management (MDM) solutions and can enforce password policies, restrict app installations, configure Wi-Fi, VPN settings, and much more. Management profiles help companies secure devices and ensure compliance with corporate policies.

Wrong Answers

A. App Store
The App Store is where users download apps. It doesn’t enforce corporate restrictions or manage device settings.

B. VPN configuration
VPNs secure network traffic and allow remote access to company resources but don’t apply broader device restrictions or security policies.

C. Apple ID
An Apple ID is a personal account used for accessing Apple services like iCloud and the App Store. It doesn’t manage or enforce corporate restrictions across the device.

A technician is deploying mobile devices and needs to prevent access to sensitive data if the devices are lost. Which of the following is the best way to prevent unauthorized access if the user is unaware that the phone is lost?

A. Encryption

B. Remote wipe

C. Geofencing

D. Facial recognition

B.   Remote wipe

Explanation:

Remote wipe allows an administrator or user to erase all data on a lost or stolen mobile device. Even if the user doesn’t immediately know the device is missing, IT can send a remote wipe command to protect sensitive data. This is the best way to ensure data security when physical control of the device is lost.

Wrong Answers

A. Encryption
Encryption protects data stored on the device, making it unreadable without the correct password or biometric unlock. However, if someone has the credentials or manages to bypass the lock screen, encryption alone won’t remove data from the device. Remote wipe removes data entirely, which is a stronger response to loss.

C. Geofencing
Geofencing restricts app or device functionality based on location. It’s helpful for limiting device use in certain areas but doesn’t delete data or prevent access if the phone is taken outside the designated region.

D. Facial recognition
Facial recognition controls who can unlock the phone but doesn’t help once a device is permanently lost or stolen. Remote wipe removes data entirely, ensuring no one can access sensitive information, regardless of lock-screen security.

Which of the following provides information to employees, such as permitted activities when using the organization's resources?

A. AUP

B. MNDA

C. DRM

D. EULA

A.   AUP

Explanation:

An AUP (Acceptable Use Policy) defines what employees are allowed and not allowed to do when using the organization’s resources, such as computers, networks, email, and internet access. It helps protect the organization by setting clear rules for proper use and security practices. Employees must agree to follow the AUP to ensure compliance and avoid misuse of company resources.

Wrong Answers

B. MNDA
MNDA stands for Mutual Non-Disclosure Agreement. It’s a legal contract where both parties agree to keep shared information confidential. It doesn’t outline general rules for using company resources.

C. DRM
Digital Rights Management (DRM) controls how digital content (like music, videos, and documents) can be accessed or copied. It’s unrelated to user policies for company resources.

D. EULA
An End-User License Agreement (EULA) is a legal agreement between the software vendor and the user, specifying how software can be used. It governs software usage rights, not broader workplace resource policies.

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