CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Test

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Updated On : 13-Aug-2025
208 Questions
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Page 6 out of 21 Pages

Topic 1: Main Questions

A technician needs to select PC components with a minimal number of visible internal cables. Which of the following should the technician use?

A. SATA drive connections

B. Liquid cooling

C. Modular power supply

D. Wireless NIC

C.   Modular power supply

Explanation:

A) SATA drive connections
SATA (Serial ATA) connections are used to link storage devices like hard drives and SSDs to the motherboard. While SATA cables are essential for data and power transfer to these drives, they tend to add clutter inside a PC case. Traditional SATA power and data cables are not designed to reduce cable visibility—they are generally fixed and can’t be easily shortened or hidden. Therefore, choosing SATA drive connections does not help in minimizing visible internal cables. In fact, using SATA drives typically increases cable visibility compared to M.2 or NVMe drives.

B) Liquid cooling
Liquid cooling systems can help reduce the size of bulky air coolers and improve airflow, but they do not reduce the number of internal cables in a PC. In fact, most all-in-one (AIO) liquid cooling systems introduce extra cables for the pump, fans, and possibly RGB lighting. Custom loop cooling systems can be even more complex. While they may visually streamline cooling components, they don't minimize the total number of internal cables—sometimes they even increase them. Hence, liquid cooling is not the ideal solution if minimizing visible cabling is the priority.

C) Modular power supply ✅
A modular power supply is specifically designed to reduce cable clutter. Unlike non-modular or semi-modular power supplies, it allows the technician to attach only the cables needed for the specific components in use. This means unused cables can be omitted entirely, helping maintain a cleaner, more organized internal layout. It is especially useful for PC builds where airflow and aesthetics are important. By allowing customization and flexibility, a modular power supply is the best solution among the given options to minimize the number of visible internal cables.

D) Wireless NIC
A wireless NIC (Network Interface Card) allows a device to connect to Wi-Fi without a physical Ethernet cable, which can reduce external cabling. However, it has no real impact on internal cable visibility within the PC case. Additionally, even though the NIC may avoid one network cable, other necessary internal power and data cables remain. Therefore, while it may offer external cable reduction, it does not address the goal of minimizing visible internal cables, making this an incorrect answer for this particular scenario.

A customer reports a problem connecting to network resources. After asking open-ended questions, the technician determines the issue likely exists on the remote server. Which of the following should the technician do next?

A. Document the findings.

B. Test the theory

C. Gather information

D. Establish a plan of action

B.   Test the theory

Explanation:

A) Document the findings
Documentation is a vital step in the troubleshooting process, but it occurs toward the end—after the issue has been resolved. At this point in the scenario, the technician has only made a preliminary determination that the issue likely lies with the remote server. If the technician were to document this now, they would be recording a theory that hasn’t been confirmed. This could lead to inaccurate records and confusion later on. Proper documentation requires verified, factual information, which makes this step premature at this point in the troubleshooting workflow.

B) Test the theory ✅
Testing the theory is the correct next step because the technician has already gathered information and formed a hypothesis about the root cause (an issue with the remote server). According to the CompTIA troubleshooting model, after forming a theory of probable cause, the technician must verify that theory before taking further action. This could involve attempting to ping the server, using traceroute, or checking access from another device. By confirming the theory through testing, the technician ensures that any subsequent action is based on a valid and accurate understanding of the problem.

C) Gather information
Gathering information is one of the initial steps in troubleshooting and involves asking questions, observing symptoms, and collecting logs or error messages. In the scenario, the technician has already asked open-ended questions and reached a preliminary conclusion, meaning this step has already been completed. Repeating it now would be redundant unless the current theory is disproved. Jumping back to information gathering without first validating the current hypothesis could waste time and cause confusion. Therefore, while important, this is not the correct next step at this point in the process.

D) Establish a plan of action
Establishing a plan of action is a later step in the troubleshooting process that comes after the technician has tested and confirmed the root cause of the issue. Planning without a verified cause is risky because the technician may act based on a false assumption. If the theory that the issue lies with the remote server turns out to be wrong, any plan based on that theory would be ineffective. This could lead to wasted effort or even unintended consequences. Therefore, before making any plans, the technician should first confirm the problem by testing their theory.

Which of the following is a Bluetooth network an example of?

A. PAN

B. LAN

C. WAN

D. SAN

A.   PAN

Explanation:

A) PAN (Personal Area Network) ✅
🟢 Correct: A PAN is a Personal Area Network, which is used for communication among devices close to a single user—usually within 10 meters. Bluetooth is a prime example of PAN technology. It connects devices such as smartphones, wireless headphones, fitness trackers, and keyboards without requiring physical cables. PANs are characterized by their short-range, low power consumption, and focus on individual use cases, like syncing or streaming. Since Bluetooth operates specifically in this short-range personal space, it clearly fits the definition of a PAN, making this the correct answer.

B) LAN (Local Area Network)
🔴 Incorrect: A Local Area Network spans a larger physical area than a PAN—such as a home, office, or campus. LANs connect multiple computers and devices, usually via Ethernet or Wi-Fi, to enable file sharing, printer access, and internet connectivity. Bluetooth does not provide the range or infrastructure to support the complexity of a LAN. It lacks the routing, switching, and broadcast capabilities of a LAN. Therefore, despite both being network types, Bluetooth’s limited scope and intended use disqualify it as a LAN.

C) WAN (Wide Area Network)
🔴 Incorrect: A Wide Area Network spans a vast geographic area, such as multiple cities, countries, or even continents. The internet itself is the largest example of a WAN. WANs are typically maintained by ISPs or large organizations and require high-level infrastructure like routers, satellites, or fiber-optic links. Bluetooth’s range is far too limited (usually under 10 meters), and it was never designed for such wide-scale communication. It cannot serve as the backbone of global data transmission, so it’s entirely inaccurate to classify Bluetooth as a WAN.

D) SAN (Storage Area Network)
🔴 Incorrect: A Storage Area Network is a specialized high-speed network that provides access to consolidated, block-level data storage. SANs are primarily used in data centers to allow servers to connect to large volumes of storage as if they were local drives. SANs use fiber channel or iSCSI—not wireless technologies like Bluetooth. Bluetooth has no role in data center-level infrastructure and doesn’t interface with storage in this manner. So, despite the similarity in acronym format, a SAN and Bluetooth network serve completely unrelated functions.

A user connects their laptop to a projector in a conference room. Once connected, the userreports the screen is smaller at the bottom than at the top. The user tries restarting the laptop and then disconnecting and reconnecting the cable to the projector. Which of the following should a technician do to resolve the issue?

A. Replace the HDMI cable.

B. Power cycle the projector.

C. Adjust the keystone

D. Increase the resolution

C.   Adjust the keystone

Explanation:

A) Replace the HDMI cable
🔴 Incorrect: A damaged or low-quality HDMI cable can cause video artifacts, flickering, or a complete loss of signal, but it does not cause geometric distortions like the image appearing trapezoidal or uneven. The issue described—where the image is smaller at the bottom than at the top—is a shape distortion, not a connection or signal problem. Therefore, replacing the HDMI cable would not address the specific symptom presented and would likely result in wasted time and resources.

B) Power cycle the projector
🔴 Incorrect: Restarting or power cycling the projector can resolve some temporary glitches like overheating or frozen displays, but it will not fix image distortion caused by misalignment or projection angle. The problem here is clearly optical and geometric, related to how the image is being thrown onto the screen, not a hardware malfunction. So, while a power cycle is a basic troubleshooting step, it’s not the most relevant or effective solution for this specific keystone distortion.

C) Adjust the keystone ✅
🟢 Correct: Keystone correction allows the user to adjust the shape of the projected image when the projector is not perfectly aligned with the screen. The described distortion—smaller at the bottom and wider at the top—is a classic example of keystone distortion, which occurs when the projector is tilted upward or downward. Modern projectors often include automatic or manual keystone settings that let you correct the angle without physically repositioning the device. Therefore, adjusting the keystone setting is the most direct and appropriate solution.

D) Increase the resolution
🔴 Incorrect: Changing the display resolution affects the clarity and size of the image, but it doesn’t correct geometric distortions like trapezoidal shapes. Increasing resolution may improve image detail, but it will not fix a screen that's uneven due to projection angle. The issue is with projection alignment, not display resolution. As such, modifying the resolution setting would have no meaningful impact on the described problem and does not address the root cause.

A technician is installing a new high-end graphics card that uses a 12VHPWR connector. Which of the following is the maximum wattage supported by this power connector?

A. 400W

B. MOW

C. 600W

D. 700W

C.   600W

Explanation:

A) 400W
🔴 Incorrect: While 400W is within the power range that certain PCIe connectors can handle, it does not represent the maximum supported by the 12VHPWR connector. This new standard was introduced by PCIe 5.0 primarily for high-performance graphics cards such as NVIDIA RTX 4090. It was specifically designed to exceed traditional PCIe power limits. Therefore, while 400W could be supplied, it is not the maximum capability of this connector, making this an incomplete and incorrect answer.

B) 100W
🔴 Incorrect: 100W is far below the typical power requirements for modern high-end GPUs and is not even close to what a 12VHPWR connector can deliver. This power level is more suited for low-power GPUs or PCIe-powered add-in cards that draw power directly from the motherboard. The 12VHPWR connector is engineered to handle massive power delivery, making this answer inaccurate and irrelevant to the context of high-end GPU installations.

C) 600W ✅
🟢 Correct: The 12VHPWR (12-volt High Power) connector is a newer power interface introduced with PCIe 5.0 and is designed to deliver up to 600 watts of power through a single cable. This design minimizes cable clutter and provides adequate power for demanding GPUs without needing multiple 8-pin connectors. It's now used in premium cards like the NVIDIA RTX 4090. As such, 600W is the correct and maximum power delivery supported by this connector, and it's the only valid choice among the options.

D) 700W
🔴 Incorrect: Although some high-performance GPUs may require significant power, 700W exceeds the rated capacity of the 12VHPWR connector. Delivering this much power through a single cable would pose safety and thermal risks. The official specification caps the power at 600W, which is already a significant improvement over legacy connectors. Therefore, selecting 700W is factually incorrect based on the design and safety limits of the 12VHPWR standard.

A user prints a job from a laser printer. The user wipes the page, and the words and images come off of it. The technician replaces the toner cartridge, but the issue persists. Which of the following components should the technician replace next?

A. Fuser

B. Drum

C. Developer roller

D. Discharge lamp

A.   Fuser

Explanation:

A) Fuser ✅
🟢 Correct: In a laser printer, the fuser unit is responsible for applying heat and pressure to bond the toner permanently onto the paper. If the text or images can be wiped off easily, it means the toner hasn't been fused properly—indicating the fuser is malfunctioning or has failed. Replacing the toner alone won’t solve this issue if the fuser can’t melt and press the toner into the paper fibers. Therefore, the most logical and technically accurate fix is to replace the fuser, making this the correct answer.

B) Drum
🔴 Incorrect: The drum unit transfers the toner from the developer roller to the paper, using an electrostatic charge. If the drum were faulty, the symptoms would include ghosting, smearing, or incomplete images—not toner that can be wiped off. A drum issue would manifest as printing defects, but it would not affect the toner’s ability to adhere to the paper. Since the toner is making it to the page but not sticking, the issue lies elsewhere, not with the drum.

C) Developer Roller
🔴 Incorrect: The developer roller helps move the toner from the toner cartridge to the drum. If it were faulty, the toner may not reach the drum or could be uneven, resulting in faded print or patchy areas. However, in this case, the toner is being deposited correctly—it’s just not bonding with the paper. This clearly points to a post-transfer issue, not a toner delivery problem. Replacing the developer roller would not resolve toner adhesion problems, so this is not the correct solution.

D) Discharge Lamp
🔴 Incorrect: The discharge lamp is used to neutralize static charges on the drum after printing. A malfunction here might affect the printer’s readiness for the next print cycle, but it won’t cause toner to fail to fuse to the page. Even if the discharge lamp fails, you wouldn’t see toner being wiped off immediately after printing. Since the core issue involves bonding toner to paper, the discharge lamp is not relevant to the problem described.

A user is receiving many unsolicited emails. Which of the following controls can be configured to best reduce these types of emails?

A. Load balancer

B. Spam gateway

C. Mail forwarding

D. Proxy servers

B.   Spam gateway

Explanation:

A) Load balancer
🔴 Incorrect: A load balancer is a networking device that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers to ensure system stability and performance. It plays no role in filtering email or protecting users from spam. While load balancers are essential in large-scale infrastructures to avoid overload, they do not analyze or block emails, let alone unsolicited ones. So, configuring a load balancer would not help in reducing the volume of spam emails received by the user.

B) Spam gateway ✅
🟢 Correct: A spam gateway is a dedicated email filtering system designed to identify and block unsolicited or harmful emails before they reach users. These gateways use criteria like known blacklists, heuristics, sender reputation, and message content to flag or quarantine spam. By filtering messages at the network edge, spam gateways drastically reduce the number of unwanted emails delivered to inboxes. Therefore, configuring a spam gateway is the most effective and relevant method for addressing the user's issue.

C) Mail forwarding
🔴 Incorrect: Mail forwarding simply redirects incoming messages from one email address to another. It does not provide any filtering or spam-blocking functionality. In fact, forwarding messages might increase spam exposure if the destination inbox lacks proper filtering. It is a useful tool for convenience but has nothing to do with reducing the number of unsolicited emails. Thus, this is not an appropriate control for solving the problem described.

D) Proxy servers
🔴 Incorrect: A proxy server serves as an intermediary between a user and the internet, often used for web filtering, caching, or privacy. While useful for blocking access to certain websites or monitoring user activity, proxy servers are not responsible for analyzing or filtering incoming email traffic. They do not operate at the level of email protocols like SMTP or IMAP. As such, setting up a proxy server won’t affect spam emails.

Which of the following connectors can be used to charge most modern mobile devices and may have the capacity to send data audio and video?

A. Lightning

B. USB-C

C. MicroUSB

D. MiniUSB

B.   USB-C

Explanation:

A) Lightning
🔴 Incorrect: The Lightning connector is Apple’s proprietary interface used primarily for charging and data transfer on devices like iPhones and some iPads. While it supports audio and can connect to accessories, it does not natively support video output without the use of expensive adapters. Additionally, its use is limited to Apple devices, meaning it is not applicable to most modern devices on the market today, especially Android and other non-Apple platforms. Therefore, it is not the most universal or capable option listed.

B) USB-C ✅
🟢 Correct: USB-C is the most widely adopted connector for modern smartphones, tablets, and laptops. It supports power delivery (charging), high-speed data transfer, audio, and video output (e.g., DisplayPort, HDMI via alternate modes). USB-C is also reversible, simplifying user experience. Its versatility and cross-platform adoption make it the de facto standard for modern devices, both consumer and professional. Because it meets all the functional requirements listed in the question, this is the correct answer.

C) MicroUSB
🔴 Incorrect: MicroUSB was the standard before USB-C but lacks many of its advanced features. While it supports charging and basic data transfer, it does not support video output or high-speed protocols like USB 3.1 or Thunderbolt. It’s also not reversible, making it less user-friendly. Most modern devices have already transitioned away from MicroUSB, making it obsolete in newer hardware. Thus, MicroUSB doesn’t fulfill the comprehensive connectivity demands of current-generation devices.

D) MiniUSB
🔴 Incorrect: MiniUSB is an even older connector than MicroUSB and has been largely phased out in mobile devices. It supports only charging and basic data transfer, without the ability to transmit audio or video. It is bulky and found mostly in legacy devices like early digital cameras or MP3 players. Because it is not used in modern smartphones or tablets and lacks multimedia transmission support, it is not the right answer for this question.

Which of the following cable types is the most suitable for delivering 10Gb speeds for distances over 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m)?

A. Multimode fiber

B. Single-mode fiber

C. Cat 6a

D. Cat 6

A.   Multimode fiber

Explanation:

A) Multimode fiber ✅
🟢 Correct: Multimode fiber optic cable is ideal for high-speed data transmission over medium distances, such as the range between 100m and 400m. It supports speeds like 10Gbps reliably within this range and is cost-effective compared to single-mode. Multimode uses multiple light paths which makes it suitable for shorter distances than single-mode but still much farther than copper cables. For 10Gbps up to 400m, OM3 or OM4 multimode fiber is typically used in enterprise networks and data centers.

B) Single-mode fiber
🔴 Incorrect: Single-mode fiber is designed for long-distance communication, often exceeding several kilometers. It supports 10Gbps and higher, but its cost is significantly higher due to its laser-based transmitters and more precise alignment. While it does work for the range in question, it is overkill and not cost-efficient for 100m to 400m scenarios. It’s typically used in WAN or inter-building connections, not within short-range infrastructure like office networks.

C) Cat 6a
🔴 Incorrect: Cat 6a cabling is an upgraded version of Cat 6 that supports 10Gbps Ethernet, but only up to 100 meters (328ft). Beyond this length, signal degradation and attenuation become significant, and the cable can no longer reliably support 10Gbps speeds. Since the question requires support for distances over 100m, Cat 6a is not a suitable choice.

D) Cat 6
🔴 Incorrect: Cat 6 supports 10Gbps speeds only up to 55 meters (180 feet) under ideal conditions and falls off sharply beyond that. For lengths over 100 meters, Cat 6 simply does not have the shielding or performance characteristics needed to maintain 10Gbps throughput. Therefore, it fails both the speed and distance criteria in this question.

A salesperson is unable to use a personal device to access emails and calendar features at a client site but was able to use the device while at the office. Which of the following policies has been enforced on the salesperson's mobile device?

A. MOW

B. MAN

C. MFA

D. MAM

D.   MAM

Explanation:

A) MOW
🔴 Incorrect: MOW (Mobile Office Workforce) is not a standard IT policy or acronym recognized in mobile device management. It may be a typographical error or misinterpretation. Since it does not exist as a common policy, it cannot logically be responsible for limiting access to corporate resources like email or calendars on a personal device.

B) MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)
🔴 Incorrect: MAN refers to a network type, not a mobile policy. It’s a geographical network category used to connect multiple LANs across a city or large campus. It has no control over mobile devices or app permissions, and it certainly cannot enforce access policies based on location. It is unrelated to mobile access controls like email security or device restrictions.

C) MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)
🔴 Incorrect: MFA is a security control used to verify user identity, requiring two or more authentication methods. It does not block or restrict device access based on location or policy—MFA only ensures that the person logging in is who they claim to be. If the device was blocked at the client site, the restriction is more likely due to an app control policy, not authentication failure.

D) MAM (Mobile Application Management) ✅
🟢 Correct: MAM policies manage and restrict access to specific corporate applications like email and calendar, especially on BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) scenarios. These policies can enforce geo-restrictions, conditional access, or data loss prevention rules based on location, device status, or network. Since the salesperson could access email at the office but not at the client site, it indicates a MAM policy is limiting app access based on a non-corporate network.

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