Free CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Questions 2026 - Page 18
Topic 1: Main Questions
A help desk technician inspects a laptop keyboard because a single key has stopped working. The technician checks the keyboard for debris. Which of the following actions should the technician do next to troubleshoot the issue cost-effectively?
A. Replace the keyboard.
B. Replace the key switch
C. Replace the circuit board.
D. Replace the keycap
Explanation:
After inspecting the keyboard and finding no debris under the non-working key, the most cost-effective next step is to replace the key switch (also known as the key mechanism or scissor switch). Laptop keyboards consist of individual keycaps, mechanical switches, and a membrane circuit board. When a single key fails, the issue is often the mechanical switch mechanism rather than the entire keyboard assembly. Replacing just the affected key switch is significantly cheaper and less labor-intensive than replacing the whole keyboard, which may require extensive disassembly of the laptop. Many laptop manufacturers provide replacement key mechanisms as service parts, allowing targeted repair without replacing the entire keyboard unit.
Why other options are incorrect:
A. Replace the keyboard:
This is expensive and involves significant labor. Full keyboard replacement should only be attempted after simpler, targeted repairs fail.
C. Replace the circuit board:
The circuit board (keyboard membrane) is part of the integrated keyboard assembly. Replacing it essentially means replacing the entire keyboard, making this neither cost-effective nor a separate option.
D. Replace the keycap:
The keycap is the plastic top that presses the switch. If the key stopped working, the underlying switch mechanism is the likely failure point, not the cap itself.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.7: "Given a scenario, troubleshoot and replace laptop components... Individual key repair options include replacing key mechanisms before full keyboard replacement."
Which of the following will a company most likely use to control which websites a user can access?
A. Proxy server
B. Spam gateway
C. DHCP server
D. RADIUS server
Explanation:
A Proxy Server acts as an intermediary between a workstation and the internet. When a user requests a website, the proxy evaluates the request against a set of administrative rules.
Why the Other Options are Incorrect
B. Spam gateway:
This is a specialized security appliance for email (SMTP). It scans incoming mail for phishing, malware, and junk before it reaches the mail server. It does not monitor or block web browsing (HTTP/HTTPS) traffic.
C. DHCP server:
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol server is responsible for automatically assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, and default gateways to devices. It manages network connectivity parameters but lacks the intelligence to filter website content.
D. RADIUS server:
A Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service server is used for AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting). It verifies credentials when a user connects to a VPN or Wi-Fi. It controls who can get on the network, not where they go once they are on it.
References
CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 2.1 – "Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices."
Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide: Defines the Proxy Server as a tool for "caching and content filtering" and the Spam Gateway as a "secure email gateway."
An administrator is investigating a misuse of printer resources. The administrator suspects an employee. Which of the following will help the administrator verify the source of misuse?
A. Secure printing
B. Print counter
C. Audit logs
D. User authentication
Explanation:
Audit logs are the most effective tool for investigating misuse of printer resources and identifying the responsible employee. Audit logs record detailed information about print jobs, including:
Username or employee ID who submitted the job
Date and time of printing
Document name or print job details
Number of pages printed
Printer used
By reviewing audit logs, the administrator can trace specific print activity back to individual users and verify the source of misuse.
Why other options are incorrect:
A. Secure printing:
Secure printing (badging/PIN release) prevents unauthorized access to printed documents but does not log or track print job history for investigation purposes.
B. Print counter:
Print counters track total page counts for maintenance or billing purposes but typically do not associate print jobs with specific users.
D. User authentication:
User authentication controls who can print but does not provide historical records of past print activity needed for investigation.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.6 and 4.3: "Given a scenario, configure printers... Audit logs for tracking print job history and user accountability."
A salesperson is unable to reach the internet from a home office PC A support technician wants to verify the router is receiving a valid public IP address Which of the Wowing is a valid public IP address in this scenario?
A. 10.254.128.11
B. 66.157.195.20
C. 172.16.0.30
D. 192.168 1.50
Explanation:
A public IP address is globally routable on the internet and must not fall within the ranges reserved for private networks (RFC 1918). 66.157.195.20 is a public IP address because it does not belong to any private IP range and is assigned for use on the public internet.
Why other options are incorrect:
A. 10.254.128.11:
This is a private IP address (10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 range), used only within local networks, not routable on the internet.
C. 172.16.0.30:
This is a private IP address (172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 range), reserved for internal network use.
D. 192.168.1.50:
This is a private IP address (192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 range), commonly used in home networks.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 2.6:"Given a scenario, configure a basic wired/wireless network... Public vs. private IP addressing and RFC 1918 private address ranges."
A technician recently updated the firmware on a dual-BIOS motherboard. Following the update, the system has been stuck in a boot loop and cannot start an OS from any internal or external device. The technician cannot access the UEFI menu either. Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Enable the secondary configuration.
B. Downgrade the firmware via USB.
C. Start a warranty repair of the motherboard.
D. Reapply thermal paste to the CPU.
Explanation:
A dual-BIOS motherboard has two BIOS chips: a primary and a secondary (backup). If a firmware update fails or becomes corrupted, causing the system to enter a boot loop and preventing access to UEFI, the technician should enable the secondary (backup) BIOS configuration. This is typically done by:
Using a physical switch on the motherboard
Moving a jumper
Pressing a specific key combination during startup
The secondary BIOS contains the original or fallback firmware version, allowing the system to boot and later attempt recovery of the primary BIOS.
Why other options are incorrect:
B. Downgrade the firmware via USB: T
he technician cannot access UEFI to initiate a firmware downgrade from USB, as the system is stuck in a boot loop and won't reach the firmware interface.
C. Start a warranty repair of the motherboard:
This is premature. Dual-BIOS motherboards are specifically designed to recover from failed updates without replacement.
D. Reapply thermal paste to the CPU:
Thermal paste affects CPU cooling, not BIOS functionality or boot loop issues.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.5 and 5.3: Troubleshooting firmware issues including dual-BIOS recovery methods when primary BIOS fails.
A user's laptop keyboard is distorted and no longer flat. Which laptop component most likely failed?
A. Battery
B. RAM
C. Keyboard
D. HDD
Explanation:
A distorted, bulging, or no longer flat keyboard is a classic symptom of a swollen lithium-ion battery. In modern laptops, the battery is often located directly beneath the palm rest and keyboard assembly. When a battery fails and begins to swell (due to internal chemical breakdown and gas buildup), it physically pushes upward against the keyboard, causing keys to bulge, the keyboard surface to become uneven, and the chassis to deform. This is a safety hazard requiring immediate battery replacement.
Why other options are incorrect:
B. RAM:
RAM failure causes system instability, boot failures, or blue screens. It cannot physically deform the keyboard.
C. Keyboard:
The keyboard is showing the symptom, but it is not the failed component. The keyboard itself didn't fail; it was deformed by the swollen battery underneath.
D. HDD:
A failing hard drive causes performance issues or data loss but cannot physically distort the keyboard.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.7: "Given a scenario, troubleshoot and replace laptop components... Symptoms of swollen battery include trackpad issues, keyboard deformation, and case bulging."
A technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router in order to provide an Ethernet connection to a laptop. Which of the following network types has the technician configured?
A. WAN
B. SAN
C. PAN
D. MAN
Explanation:
The technician has configured a WAN (Wide Area Network) connection. A WISP (Wireless Internet Service Provider) modem connects to the internet provider's network, which is a WAN. The portable router then distributes this internet connection to the laptop via Ethernet. The key point is that the technician is connecting to the internet (a WAN), not creating a local network for its own sake.
Why other options are incorrect:
B. SAN (Storage Area Network):
A SAN is a specialized, high-speed network that provides block-level storage access to servers. It is not used for general internet connectivity.
C. PAN (Personal Area Network):
A PAN connects devices within an individual's personal space (e.g., Bluetooth headphones to a phone). While the laptop is personal, the connection established is to a WAN.
D. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network):
A MAN covers a larger geographic area than a LAN but smaller than a WAN, typically spanning a city. A WISP connection is considered a WAN, not a MAN.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 2.2: "Compare and contrast common networking hardware... Network types including WAN, LAN, PAN, and MAN." A WISP modem connects a local site to a provider's wide area network.
Users in a 200-person call center report that phone calls experience severe performance
degradation on busy days. The technician confirms:
• Upload and download speeds are 50Mbps during a speed test.
• VoIP call prioritization settings are properly configured for the VLAN that the call center uses.
Which of the following is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. The QoS is not configured correctly on the router.
B. The switchports dedicated to the call center are flapping.
C. The call center's VLAN is not configured to allow voice traffic.
D. The bandwidth dedicated to the call center is insufficient.
Explanation:
The issue occurs specifically on busy days, indicating that the problem is related to network congestion. While a speed test shows 50Mbps available, this measures raw throughput but does not account for how that bandwidth is shared among 200 simultaneous users during peak times. VoIP calls are sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss—all of which occur when available bandwidth is exceeded by demand. Even with proper QoS and VLAN configuration, if the total bandwidth (50Mbps) is insufficient for 200 concurrent calls, performance will degrade.
Why other options are incorrect:
A. The QoS is not configured correctly on the router:
The technician already confirmed VoIP call prioritization settings are properly configured for the VLAN.
B. The switchports dedicated to the call center are flapping:
Port flapping would cause intermittent connectivity, not performance degradation correlated with busy days.
C. The call center's VLAN is not configured to allow voice traffic:
The technician confirmed VoIP prioritization settings are properly configured, indicating the VLAN is set up correctly.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 2.2 and 2.4: Network performance issues and bandwidth limitations during peak usage periods.
Which of the following can be used to logically segment networks?
A. MAC
B. VLAN
C. NIC
D. DSL
Explanation:
VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a technology used to logically segment networks at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer). VLANs allow network administrators to partition a single physical network into multiple logical broadcast domains, improving:
Security: Isolates sensitive traffic from general traffic
Performance: Reduces broadcast traffic
Management: Groups devices by function (e.g., VoIP, data, guest) regardless of physical location
Why other options are incorrect:
A. MAC (Media Access Control):
MAC addresses identify devices on a network but do not segment networks. MAC filtering controls access but does not create logical separation.
C. NIC (Network Interface Card):
A NIC is hardware that connects a device to a network. It has no role in network segmentation.
D. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line):
DSL is a technology for internet access over telephone lines. It is a WAN connection type, not a network segmentation method.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 2.2: "Compare and contrast common networking hardware... VLANs for logical network segmentation and traffic isolation."
A company wants to save printing costs by restricting network printer use. The company implements a solution that requires employees to authenticate to the printer to release print jobs Which of the following has the company implemented?
A. Access control list
B. Audit logging
C. Badging
D. Print server
Explanation:
The company has implemented badging (also called secure print or pull printing). This solution requires employees to authenticate at the printer—typically by swiping an ID badge or entering a PIN—before their print jobs are released and printed. This prevents unauthorized access to printed documents and reduces wasted or unclaimed print jobs, directly saving printing costs.
Why other options are incorrect:
A. Access control list:
An ACL controls permissions for users accessing resources but does not manage print job release at the printer.
B. Audit logging:
Audit logging records print activity for tracking and investigation but does not restrict printing or require authentication to release jobs.
D. Print server:
A print server manages print queues and drivers centrally but does not inherently require user authentication at the printer to release jobs.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.6: "Given a scenario, configure printers... Secure printing (badging/PIN release) for cost control and document security."
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