Free CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Questions 2026 - Page 15

Explanation:

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the service used to automatically allocate IP addresses and other network configuration parameters (subnet mask, default gateway, DNS servers) to devices on a network. In an enterprise-wide environment, DHCP servers manage IP address pools, lease durations, and ensure efficient address utilization without manual configuration.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. DNS (Domain Name System):
DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses. It translates human-readable names (like google.com) to machine-readable IP addresses but does not assign IP addresses.

B. Syslog:
Syslog is a protocol for message logging and event monitoring. It collects and stores log messages from network devices but does not allocate IP addresses.

C. Telnet:
Telnet is an unencrypted protocol for remote terminal access to devices. It is used for management, not IP address allocation.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 2.1 and 2.6: "Compare and contrast TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purposes... DHCP (port 67/68) for automatic IP address assignment."

Explanation:

One of the primary design goals for each new generation of DDR (Double Data Rate) memory is to increase speed while reducing power consumption.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Higher latency:
While it is technically true that DDR4 often has higher CAS Latency (the number of clock cycles it takes to access data) than DDR3, this is a performance drawback, not a defining characteristic used to differentiate the physical or electrical standards in a positive "evolutionary" sense for the exam. Furthermore, the overall speed increase of DDR4 usually offsets the higher latency.

C. Increased DIMM width:
Both DDR3 and DDR4 DIMMs (Dual Inline Memory Modules) have the same physical width (standardized by JEDEC). However, they have different pin counts (DDR3 has 240 pins; DDR4 has 288 pins) and the "notch" is in a different location to prevent accidental insertion into the wrong slot.

D. Single-sided modules:
Both DDR3 and DDR4 can be manufactured as single-sided or double-sided modules. This depends on the density of the memory chips used by the manufacturer, not the DDR generation itself.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 3.4 – "Explain the purposes and properties of motherboards." (Sub-section: RAM types).

Official CompTIA Training: Memory generations are distinguished by their physical notches, pin counts, and power requirements (voltage).

Explanation:

The user reports two specific symptoms: insufficient storage when installing applications and slow application load times. Replacing the existing storage drive with an SSD (Solid State Drive) addresses both issues:

Why other options are incorrect:

B. USB:
USB refers to a connection interface or external drive, not a replacement internal component. Adding an external USB drive could add storage but would not improve internal application load times.

C. HDD:
Replacing with another HDD would add storage but would not resolve slow load times since HDDs are mechanical and inherently slower than SSDs.

D. RAM:
Adding RAM improves multitasking and system responsiveness but does not increase storage capacity for installing applications.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.2 and 3.3: "Compare and contrast storage devices... SSDs provide faster performance and reliability compared to HDDs for application loading and overall system responsiveness."

Explanation:

The symptoms described (fast at the start of the month, slow at the end) indicate that the customer is exceeding their cellular data limit. Most mobile carriers use data throttling, where they significantly reduce internet speeds once a user hits a certain "high-speed" data threshold.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Disabling all cloud backup services except one:
While this would reduce data usage, it violates the customer's requirement that "Data availability is important." Disabling backups could lead to data loss if the remaining service fails or runs out of space.

B. Installing an additional SD card:
An SD card provides local storage on the device, but it does not change how the phone communicates with the cloud. The phone would still attempt to back up that data over the cellular network, leading to the same throttling issue.

C. Expanding the cache storage:
Cache storage is used to temporarily store web data to speed up loading times. It does not affect the massive amount of data being sent to cloud providers and would not prevent the carrier from throttling the connection.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 2.4 – "Summarize the properties and characteristics of TCP/IP." (Context: Data usage and network types).

Official CompTIA Training: Mobile device synchronization is a key topic; technicians are taught to manage background data to balance performance and cost.

Explanation:

BitLocker Drive Encryption in Windows requires a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) to securely store the encryption keys used for full disk encryption, particularly for the boot drive. The TPM is a dedicated hardware chip that provides cryptographic operations and secure key storage. If a desktop PC cannot encrypt the boot drive with BitLocker, the administrator should check:

Whether a TPM is present in the system
If the TPM is enabled in the BIOS/UEFI
If the TPM is initialized and ready for use in Windows
Without a functioning TPM, BitLocker cannot protect the boot drive using its most secure, transparent mode.

Why other options are incorrect:

B. CPU:
The CPU processes instructions but has no direct role in BitLocker encryption key storage. Modern CPUs may include cryptographic acceleration, but BitLocker specifically requires TPM for boot drive encryption.

C. RAM:
RAM temporarily stores data during operation but does not persistently store encryption keys. It is not involved in BitLocker's secure key storage mechanism.

D. HDD:
The hard drive is the target of encryption, not the component that enables it. BitLocker can encrypt any drive regardless of type (HDD or SSD) as long as TPM is present.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 4.3: "Given a scenario, implement and configure common security features... TPM for BitLocker encryption and secure key storage."

Explanation:

Most modern laptops come with a built-in "Integrated Webcam." When a technician installs an external camera, the meeting software (like Zoom, Teams, or Webex) often defaults to the internal camera by habit.

If the laptop lid is closed (clamshell mode) or if there is a physical privacy shutter over the internal lens, the preview will appear as a blank or black screen. The "next step" is to go into the application settings and ensure the video input is toggled from the "Integrated Camera" to the new "USB Camera" or "External Webcam."

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Replace the camera:
This is a premature and costly step. You should never replace hardware until you have ruled out software configuration issues.

C. Update the camera software:
While a driver issue is possible, most external webcams are "Plug and Play" (UVC compliant). If the software shows a preview window at all (even a blank one), it usually means the system recognizes a camera exists; it's just looking at the wrong one.

D. Check the camera cable:
While a loose cable is a valid hardware check, the fact that the meeting software is "loading" and showing a "preview screen" often implies the software is active and trying to pull a signal. Selecting the source is the faster, non-physical check to perform first.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 5.4 – "Given a scenario, troubleshoot common problems related to mobile devices." (Focus: Peripherals).

Explanation:

The user is working from home and received a domain password expiration error. When attempting to reset the password using Ctrl+Alt+Delete, the system reports it cannot read configuration information from the domain controller because the machine is unavailable. This occurs because the user's computer is not connected to the corporate network and cannot reach a domain controller to process the password change. Domain controllers are typically only accessible from within the corporate network or through a VPN (Virtual Private Network) connection.

Connecting to the VPN establishes a secure tunnel to the corporate network, allowing the computer to communicate with domain controllers and complete the password change process.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. Restart the computer:
Restarting does not establish connectivity to the domain controller. The computer would still be unable to reach the domain controller from home.

C. Reset the account in Active Directory:
While an administrator could reset the password in Active Directory, this requires administrative access and does not resolve the user's inability to connect to the domain controller from home.

D. Join the Wi-Fi network:
The user is already connected to the internet at home. Joining Wi-Fi does not provide access to the corporate network unless it's a corporate VPN or direct connection.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 2.4 and 2.6:VPN connectivity for remote access to corporate resources including domain controllers for authentication and password changes.

Explanation:

When you assign a Static IP address to a device (like a printer), you are opting out of the automated DHCP process. To ensure the device can communicate with the rest of the network and the internet, you must manually provide the essential routing information:

B. Subnet mask:
This is a mandatory requirement for any static configuration. It defines which part of the IP address represents the network ID and which part represents the host ID. Without it, the printer won't know if a destination IP is on its local network or a remote one.

C. Default gateway:
This is the IP address of the router. If the printer needs to communicate with devices on a different subnet or access the internet (for firmware updates or cloud printing), it must know where to send traffic that is not local.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

A. DHCP:
DHCP is the service that automatically assigns addresses. Since the requirement is for static addresses, we are manually bypassing this service on the printer itself.

D. DNS:
While you usually set a DNS server for a printer, it is not strictly required for basic network printing. Furthermore, if you had to pick the "Select two" most critical components for network connectivity, the Subnet Mask and Gateway are the fundamental pillars of the IP stack.

E. Reservations:
A DHCP Reservation is a way to give a device a "permanent" IP address via the DHCP server using its MAC address. While this achieves a similar goal, it is handled at the server/router level, not manually set on the printer itself as a "Static IP."

F. Exclusions:
An exclusion is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server is told not to hand out. This prevents IP conflicts, but it is a configuration step on the router/DHCP server, not something you set on the printer.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 2.3 – "Given a scenario, install and configure a basic SOHO wired/wireless network."

Official CompTIA Training: Emphasizes that static addressing requires manual entry of the "Big Three": IP Address, Subnet Mask, and Default Gateway.

Explanation:

Molex is the standard power connector used by IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) hard drives, also known as PATA (Parallel ATA) drives. This 4-pin power connector provides +5V and +12V power to the drive and was widely used in desktop computers from the late 1980s through the mid-2000s before being largely replaced by SATA power connectors.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. F-type:
F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable connections, such as cable TV, cable modems, and satellite dishes. They are not used for internal drive power.

B. SC:
SC (Subscriber Connector) is a fiber optic connector used for networking and telecommunications. It has no role in drive power.

D. Lightning:
Lightning is a proprietary Apple connector used for charging and syncing iOS devices (iPhone, iPad, iPod). It is not used for internal hard drive power.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.1: "Given a scenario, connect and configure peripherals and ports... Connector types including Molex for legacy IDE/PATA drive power."

Explanation:

This feature is commonly known as Secure Print or Locked Print. It ensures that a document is not physically printed until the user who sent the job walks up to the printer and enters a unique PIN or swipes an ID badge.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Relocate the printer to an unused office space:
While this might physically hide the printer, it is often impractical for workflow and doesn't solve the core issue of unauthorized access if someone else enters that office. It also creates a "hidden" security risk rather than an "authenticated" one.

C. Configure printing through a specific tray:
Trays are used for different paper sizes or types (letter, legal, letterhead). They do not have locking mechanisms that prevent a person from simply pulling the paper out of that specific tray.

D. Schedule print jobs to be released at certain times:
This is inefficient and still leaves a window of time where sensitive data sits unattended in the tray. If a batch of sensitive documents prints at 5:00 PM, anyone standing by the printer at that time can see all of them.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 3.8 – "Given a scenario, install and configure printers." (Focus: Security).