Free CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Questions 2026 - Page 16

Explanation:

Containers are the best virtualization technology for running microservices because:

Lightweight: Containers share the host OS kernel, requiring fewer resources than virtual machines
Fast startup: Containers start in seconds, ideal for scaling microservices quickly
Isolation: Each microservice runs in its own container with its dependencies
Portability: Containers can run consistently across development, testing, and production environments
Orchestration: Tools like Kubernetes are designed specifically to manage containerized microservices

Why other options are incorrect:

B. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure):
VDI delivers virtual desktops to end-users, not suitable for running microservices.

C. Type 2 hypervisors:
Type 2 hypervisors run on top of a host OS and are typically used for desktop virtualization, not optimized for microservices at scale.

D. Type 1 hypervisors:
While Type 1 hypervisors (bare-metal) are excellent for running virtual machines, they are heavier than containers and less efficient for microservices that benefit from shared resources.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 4.2: "Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts... Containerization for microservices architecture and application deployment."

Explanation:

ECC RAM is the standard for servers and high-end workstations. Unlike standard RAM, ECC memory includes extra bits that allow the system to detect and fix the most common types of internal data corruption (single-bit errors).

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

A. SODIMM (Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module):
This refers to the physical size of the RAM. SODIMMs are small and used in laptops and small-form-factor PCs. Servers almost exclusively use full-sized RDIMMs (Registered DIMMs) or standard DIMMs.

C. Unbuffered:
This is the opposite of what a server typically uses. Most servers use Buffered (or Registered) RAM, which includes a register that "buffers" the control signals between the memory and the CPU's memory controller. This allows a server to support a much larger number of RAM sticks without overwhelming the electrical bus.

D. DDR3:
While a server could use DDR3, this only describes the generation of the RAM (Double Data Rate 3). Both home PCs and servers have used DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5. The question asks for the "type" most likely associated with a server's unique requirements, which is ECC.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 3.4 – "Explain the purposes and properties of motherboards." (Sub-section: RAM types - ECC vs. non-ECC).

Official CompTIA Training: ECC is defined as a critical component for servers where "uptime" is the priority over raw cost.

Explanation:

DisplayPort fully supports High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection (HDCP) , the copy protection standard used to prevent unauthorized copying of digital audio and video content as it travels over connections. HDCP is essential for playing protected content such as Blu-ray discs, streaming services (Netflix, Amazon Prime), and other copyrighted digital media. DisplayPort supports HDCP and is designed to work seamlessly with protected content.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. DVI-A:
DVI-A (Analog) transmits analog signals only and does not support HDCP. Only DVI-D (Digital) can support HDCP, and even then, implementation varies.

B. F-type:
F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable connections (cable TV, cable modems) and do not support HDCP.

C. VGA:
VGA is an analog video connector that cannot support HDCP because HDCP requires a digital connection to enforce copy protection.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.1: "Given a scenario, connect and configure peripherals and ports... Display connectors including DisplayPort and HDMI support HDCP for protected content playback."

Explanation:

When a PC is built for the first time, the internal storage drive (SSD or HDD) is empty. By default, many motherboards are set to attempt to boot from the internal drive first.

To install an operating system from a USB drive, the user must enter the BIOS/UEFI and change the Boot Order (or Boot Priority). This tells the computer to look at the USB port for bootable files before checking the empty internal drive. Once the USB is moved to the top of the list, the PC will launch the OS installer (like Windows or Linux) upon the next restart.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

A. BIOS password:
While a BIOS password is a good security measure to prevent unauthorized changes to hardware settings, it is not required to install an operating system. Setting this "next" would add a layer of security but wouldn't help the user actually start the installation.

B. PXE boot (Preboot eXecution Environment):
PXE (pronounced "pixie") is used to boot a computer over a network (using an Ethernet cable) from a central server. Since the user specifically has a USB drive, PXE is unnecessary and would actually make the process more complicated.

C. Secure Boot:
Secure Boot is a security standard that ensures a device boots using only software that is trusted by the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM). While it is often required for Windows 11, it is usually enabled by default on modern motherboards. If a user is using a non-standard or older USB installer, they might actually need to disable this, but "Boot order" remains the primary step to initiate the process.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 3.4 – "Explain the purposes and properties of motherboards." (Sub-section: BIOS/UEFI settings).

Official CompTIA Training: Teaches that the BIOS/UEFI is the "pre-boot" environment where hardware handoffs to software (the OS) are managed.

Explanation:

Plenum-rated cable is required when running network cable through spaces used for air circulation, such as suspended ceilings and raised floors that serve as air return plenums. Building fire codes mandate plenum cable because:

It has special fire-retardant jacketing (typically FEP or low-smoke PVC) It produces less toxic smoke if burned

It self-extinguishes and limits flame spread Standard PVC-jacketed cable (non-plenum) releases toxic fumes when burned, which would be circulated throughout the building by the ventilation system.

Why other options are incorrect:

B. Multimode:
Multimode refers to fiber optic cable, not copper. The question specifies "copper network cable."

C. Coaxial:
Coaxial cable is used for cable TV/internet, not standard Ethernet networking. It is not typically run in plenum spaces for data networks.

D. Twisted pair:
Twisted pair is the type of copper cabling (Cat5e, Cat6) but does not specify the jacket rating. Both plenum and non-plenum versions exist.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.1: "Given a scenario, connect and configure peripherals and ports... Cable types and properties including plenum-rated vs. non-plenum for fire safety compliance."

Explanation:

In wireless networking, there is an inverse relationship between frequency and wavelength. Lower frequencies have longer wavelengths, which allows them to pass through solid objects (like drywall, wood, and concrete) more effectively than higher frequencies.

2.4GHz: This frequency has a longer wavelength (approx. 12cm). It can "bend" around obstacles and penetrate walls with less signal loss (attenuation) than its higher-frequency counterparts.

5GHz and 6GHz: These frequencies have shorter wavelengths. While they offer much faster data speeds and less congestion, they are easily absorbed or reflected by walls, furniture, and even people.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

B. 5GHz:
While 5GHz is faster, its range is shorter, and it struggles to pass through more than two interior walls before the signal drops significantly.

C. 6GHz:
Introduced with Wi-Fi 6E and Wi-Fi 7, this frequency offers massive bandwidth but has even less penetration capability than 5GHz. It is primarily designed for high-speed communication within the same room (Line of Sight).

D. NFC (Near Field Communication):
NFC is a very low-frequency technology ($13.56\text{ MHz}$), but it is designed with an extremely low power output. Its effective range is only about 4cm (1.5 inches). It cannot penetrate a wall because it lacks the power to transmit data over that distance.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 2.4 – "Summarize the properties and characteristics of wireless networking."

Explanation:

After replacing a power supply, the most common mistake is forgetting to connect all necessary power cables. Modern motherboards require two main power connections:

24-pin main ATX power connector (powers motherboard)
4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector (provides dedicated power to the CPU)

If the 4/8-pin CPU power connector is not connected, the motherboard may receive power (lights, fans) but the CPU will not function, and the system will fail to start (no POST, no video). This is a frequent oversight during PSU replacement.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. The computer requires additional RAM:
RAM issues would cause beep codes or failure to POST, but the PC would still attempt to start. This is unrelated to PSU replacement.

B. The wattage is insufficient:
While insufficient wattage can cause issues, the PC would likely attempt to start and then shut down under load, or show signs of power. Complete failure to start is more likely a missing connection.

D. The PSU only works in redundant setups:
Standard desktop PSUs are designed for single systems, not redundant configurations. This is not a realistic concern.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.1 and 5.3: Troubleshooting power supply installation issues, including verifying all required connections (24-pin and 4/8-pin CPU power).

Explanation:

The key word in the prompt is "disabled." In a professional networking environment, a port doesn't just stop working; it can be electronically turned off by an administrator or by automated security software.

Management Interface: A Managed Switch has its own operating system and configuration interface. An administrator can manually "shut down" a specific port (e.g., Port 14) to prevent a workstation from accessing the network.

Port Security: Managed switches can also automatically disable a port if it detects a security violation, such as an unauthorized MAC address or a network loop (via Spanning Tree Protocol).

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Patch panel:
This is a passive device. It is essentially a row of RJ-45 jacks used for cable management. It has no software, no processor, and no ability to "disable" a port. If a connection fails at the patch panel, it is due to a physical break or a poor punch-down, not a "disabled" status.

B. Physical NIC:
While a Network Interface Card (NIC) can fail or be disabled within the Windows Device Manager, the prompt implies a network-side issue where "the port" (the wall jack or switch port) is the point of failure. Furthermore, a technician would usually check the switch first to see the port's administrative status.

D. Stand-alone firewall:
A firewall filters traffic based on rules (ACLs), but it does not typically control the physical or logical "up/down" status of an individual workstation's switch port. The firewall sits at the edge of the network or between subnets, not at the access layer where workstations plug in.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 2.1 – "Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices."

Explanation:

A modular power supply is the best choice for prioritizing cable management. Modular PSUs allow the technician to connect only the cables that are actually needed for the components being installed. Unused cables can be completely detached from the power supply, eliminating excess cable clutter inside the case. This results in:

Cleaner interior appearance
Improved airflow and cooling
Easier cable routing
Simplified troubleshooting and maintenance

Why other options are incorrect:

A. Back-up:
Backup power supplies (UPS) are external devices that provide battery backup during power outages, not internal PSU types.

C. Standard:
Standard (non-modular) power supplies have all cables permanently attached, including unused ones that must be bundled and stored inside the case, creating clutter.

D. Redundant:
Redundant power supplies are used in servers for fault tolerance, with multiple PSUs in one system. They are not designed for cable management in desktop builds.

Reference:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Objective 3.1: "Given a scenario, connect and configure peripherals and ports... Power supply types including modular, semi-modular, and non-modular for cable management."

Explanation:

To ensure a printer is "always available," its address on the network must never change.Static IP for the Printer: If a printer uses a dynamic IP (DHCP), the router might assign it a different address after a reboot or when its "lease" expires. If the laptops are configured to look for the printer at $192.168.1.50$ and the printer moves to $192.168.1.75$, the laptops will report the printer as "Offline." A static IP fixes this.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Manually assign based on the public IP:
Public IPs are provided by the ISP to the router's outside interface. You should never assign public IPs to internal devices like printers; it is a major security risk and usually physically impossible since ISPs only provide one or two public addresses.

C. Use APIPA for laptops:
APIPA addresses (starting with $169.254.x.x$) are self-assigned when a device cannot find a DHCP server. Devices using APIPA generally cannot access the internet, which violates the student's requirement.

D. Use dynamic IP addresses for all devices:
While this would work initially, it is the exact cause of "Printer Offline" errors. If the router reassigns the printer a new IP address later, the laptops will lose their connection to it.

References:

CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives (220-1201): Objective 2.3 – "Given a scenario, install and configure a basic SOHO wired/wireless network."