CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Test

Explanation:

A) 1920x1080
🔴 Incorrect: 1920x1080 resolution is commonly known as Full HD (FHD) or 1080p, not Ultra HD. It provides good quality for most consumer uses, but it lacks the pixel density and clarity of higher resolutions. Ultra HD offers four times the pixels of 1080p, so this option is not sufficient to meet the Ultra HD classification. It’s standard for TVs, monitors, and streaming, but not categorized as UHD.

B) 2048x1080
🔴 Incorrect: This resolution is known as 2K or DCI 2K, used mainly in digital cinema and professional video editing. While it's slightly wider than Full HD, it still falls well short of the 3840x2160 pixel count that defines Ultra HD. It also uses a different aspect ratio (17:9 vs. 16:9), making it incompatible with most consumer UHD standards. Therefore, it does not meet the criteria for Ultra HD.

C) 3840x2160 ✅
🟢 Correct: 3840x2160 is the resolution most commonly referred to as Ultra HD (UHD or 4K UHD). It maintains a 16:9 aspect ratio, making it ideal for consumer displays like TVs, monitors, and streaming platforms. It provides four times the pixel resolution of 1080p, resulting in sharper images and more detailed visuals. This is the industry standard for Ultra HD, especially in home entertainment.

D) 7680x4320
🔴 Incorrect: This resolution is referred to as 8K UHD, not Ultra HD. It has 16 times more pixels than Full HD, making it extremely detailed, but it’s not widely adopted yet due to the cost, bandwidth, and processing requirements. While technically impressive, it exceeds the scope of what is typically labeled as Ultra HD, which refers specifically to 3840x2160.

Explanation:

A) Replace the keyboard
🔴 Incorrect: Replacing the entire keyboard is a more expensive and labor-intensive solution, especially if only one key is not working. In this scenario, cost-effectiveness is key, and replacing the keyboard is usually reserved for cases where multiple keys or circuits fail. It is not the most efficient first step, especially when the fault might be limited to a single switch under the key.

B) Replace the key switch ✅
🟢 Correct: Replacing a single key switch is a targeted and cost-effective solution when only one key has failed and no debris is involved. If the key switch has become unresponsive or physically damaged, it can be replaced without changing the whole keyboard. Many keyboards allow for switch-level repairs, especially in mechanical or serviceable laptop keyboards. This option offers a precise fix at minimal cost and effort.

C) Replace the circuit board
🔴 Incorrect: Replacing the keyboard's internal circuit board is often complex and expensive. It usually requires disassembling the entire keyboard and may not even fix the problem if the failure is isolated to one mechanical switch. Also, it's unlikely that a single-key failure would be caused by a fault at the circuit board level. Thus, it's not a cost-effective or logical next step in this scenario.

D) Replace the keycap
🔴 Incorrect: A keycap is just the plastic cover that sits atop the key switch. Replacing it will not resolve issues where the key is unresponsive or failing electronically. If the key physically moves but doesn’t register input, replacing the cap is irrelevant. Only cosmetic or mechanical damage to the cap itself would warrant this step, and in this case, the issue is functional, not cosmetic.

Explanation:

A) Perform a hard restart
🔴 Incorrect: While a hard restart can resolve software glitches, it is unlikely to help in this scenario. The problem is hardware-related — the device was dropped, and the issue pertains to charging, not booting or responsiveness. A hard reset does not address physical port damage or broken internal connectors, making this step ineffective as a first troubleshooting measure.

B) Replace the battery
🔴 Incorrect: Replacing the battery is premature without first checking the charging port, which is a more common point of failure after a drop. If the USB-C port is damaged or misaligned, the battery will not receive power even if it's functional. Replacing the battery is also more expensive and invasive than inspecting the port. It’s not the first logical step in diagnosing charging problems after physical trauma.

C) Inspect the USB-C port for damage ✅
🟢 Correct: After a device is dropped and won’t charge, the most common and logical point of failure is the charging port. USB-C connectors can become bent, loosened, or dislodged from the mainboard. A visual inspection using a flashlight can often reveal misalignment, broken pins, or debris. Since it's a non-invasive and quick first step, it's the most appropriate action before considering any component replacement.

D) Run diagnostics on the digitizer
🔴 Incorrect: The digitizer handles touch input, not charging. Even if diagnostics were available, they wouldn’t help diagnose a hardware charging issue. The fact that the device doesn’t charge has no connection to the digitizer’s function, making this step irrelevant at this point in the troubleshooting process.

Explanation:

A) The SSD is faulty and should be replaced by the manufacturer
🔴 Incorrect: Jumping to the conclusion that the SSD is defective is premature without trying other troubleshooting steps first. While hardware failure is possible, it's statistically less common with brand-new SSDs compared to simple issues like loose installation. Replacing the drive without first checking if it’s seated properly or recognized in BIOS/UEFI can lead to wasted time and unnecessary returns. Always rule out connection or configuration problems before assuming a defective unit.

B) The SSD has not been properly formatted and is not readable
🔴 Incorrect: If an SSD is unformatted, it will typically still appear in the BIOS/UEFI or Disk Management utility as an unallocated or unformatted drive. The system will recognize its presence, just not use it until it’s formatted. If the drive doesn’t appear at all, the problem is more likely hardware-related, such as improper seating or connection, rather than formatting. Formatting is a necessary step for usability, but not for basic system recognition.

C) The SSD is incompatible with the motherboard
🔴 Incorrect: Modern motherboards are generally highly compatible with various SSD types (SATA, NVMe, M.2), and outright incompatibility is rare, especially if the technician selected the correct type. Even if the interface type mismatched (e.g., SATA SSD in an NVMe-only slot), most systems will still show some signs of hardware detection or throw a warning. Therefore, incompatibility is unlikely to be the most probable reason in this context.

D) The SSD has not been installed properly and should be reseated ✅
🟢 Correct: Improper installation is the most common cause of an SSD not appearing. Whether it's an M.2, SATA, or PCIe SSD, if it's not fully inserted, connected, or locked into place, the system will fail to detect it. Simply reseating the drive, checking the port for dust, or reconnecting power/data cables can often resolve the issue. This step is also non-destructive and quick, making it the best first action in such a situation.

Explanation:

A) Run an application on multiple workstations without installation
🔴 Incorrect: This describes the function of application virtualization or remote desktop environments, not sandboxing. A sandbox is a contained virtual environment used to test or isolate behavior—not to distribute software across machines. While VMs can be used to run apps on different systems, that's not the primary sandbox use case, which is more about security, testing, and isolation rather than centralized app access.

B) Explore how an application behaves in a different environment ✅
🟢 Correct: This is the core use of a virtual machine as a sandbox. Sandboxing allows for safe testing of unknown or untrusted software in a virtual environment that doesn’t affect the host system. It’s commonly used in cybersecurity, QA testing, and development to monitor how an application behaves in a controlled and isolated setup. This use case protects the real system from malware, software bugs, or misconfiguration while still allowing observation of behavior.

C) Migrate a currently used legacy application from physical to virtual
🔴 Incorrect: This is a use case of virtualization in general, specifically physical-to-virtual (P2V) migration. However, it is not sandboxing because the intent here is to continue regular use of the application, not to isolate or analyze it. Sandboxing is more about temporary, secure environments where behavior is observed without risk to production systems—not long-term application deployment.

D) Create a firewall where the sandbox acts as a perimeter network
🔴 Incorrect: This describes a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) or firewall configuration, not sandboxing. A sandbox does not serve as a perimeter defense layer—it is meant to be an internal containment area. Firewalls handle traffic between networks, while sandboxes restrict actions within a system. While both are security tools, they serve very different roles.

Explanation:

A) TPM ✅
🟢 Correct: BitLocker relies on the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to securely store the encryption keys used for drive encryption. If the TPM is missing, disabled, or not functioning, BitLocker will fail to initialize on that machine. TPM provides hardware-level security, allowing the system to verify that it hasn't been tampered with before unlocking the drive. Checking the BIOS/UEFI to ensure TPM is enabled is the first and most critical step in resolving this encryption issue.

B) CPU
🔴 Incorrect: While some advanced security features may be CPU-dependent (e.g., Intel TXT or AMD SEV), BitLocker does not require a specific CPU type for basic encryption functionality. Most modern processors are capable of supporting BitLocker, especially if TPM is present. Unless the CPU is very old or missing instructions required for other system security, it's not the cause for BitLocker failing to encrypt the drive.

C) RAM
🔴 Incorrect: BitLocker does not have special requirements for system RAM. As long as the system has enough memory to run Windows, it can handle BitLocker operations. Lack of RAM could slow down encryption/decryption processes, but it would not prevent BitLocker from starting or encrypting the boot drive. Therefore, checking RAM in this case is not a productive first step.

D) HDD
🔴 Incorrect: Although the drive must be functioning and accessible, most modern HDDs and SSDs are compatible with BitLocker. Unless the drive is failing or lacks NTFS formatting, it’s not likely the cause. The inability to encrypt the drive usually relates to missing security hardware, not the drive itself. Since the question specifies that encryption won't start, and not that the drive is failing, the HDD is likely not the issue here.

Explanation:

A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) ✅
🟢 Correct: IaaS provides virtualized computing resources, such as VMs, storage, and networking, over the cloud. For disaster recovery, it allows organizations to replicate their infrastructure in a cloud environment, ensuring rapid restoration in the event of hardware failure or data loss. It offers flexibility, scalability, and full control over OS and applications, making it ideal for running backup VMs and recovering systems quickly after outages.

B) Security as a Service (SECaaS)
🔴 Incorrect: SECaaS focuses on providing cloud-based security tools, such as antivirus, firewalls, and threat monitoring. While it enhances protection, it does not provide infrastructure or VM hosting, which is essential for disaster recovery. It could be part of a comprehensive recovery strategy but does not fulfill the infrastructure requirement to host virtual machines and restore workloads.

C) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
🔴 Incorrect: PaaS provides a development and deployment platform, including OS, runtime, and middleware, but it does not allow control over virtual machines. It's suitable for developers building and deploying applications quickly, not for recovering entire virtual infrastructures. Therefore, PaaS is too limited in scope for disaster recovery involving VMs.

D) Software as a Service (SaaS)
🔴 Incorrect: SaaS provides access to specific software applications (e.g., email, CRM) hosted in the cloud, but users have no access to the underlying infrastructure or VMs. SaaS is about consuming services, not deploying or recovering virtual machines. It cannot accommodate the level of control or customization needed for restoring a virtual environment.

Explanation:

A) PSU (Power Supply Unit) ✅
🟢 Correct: The Power Supply Unit (PSU) is the first component to verify if a desktop won’t power on at all. If the PSU fails, the system will not receive any power, preventing fans from spinning, lights from turning on, or POST from beginning. This is the most common cause of a completely unresponsive PC, and replacing or testing the PSU is usually the first troubleshooting step for a dead system.

B) GPU (Graphics Processing Unit)
🔴 Incorrect: A failed or disconnected GPU might cause display issues, but it will not prevent the PC from turning on. Most systems will still boot, and in many cases, integrated graphics can be used for basic video output. A non-functioning GPU might result in a blank screen, but you’d still see signs of life like fan spin, lights, or POST beeps, which are missing in this scenario.

C) RAM (Random Access Memory)
🔴 Incorrect: Faulty or missing RAM can prevent the system from booting properly, but it usually does not stop the system from powering on. In most cases, the motherboard will power on and emit POST error beeps indicating a RAM issue. So while bad RAM can halt the boot process, it typically doesn’t cause a total power failure, which points instead to the PSU.

D) CPU (Central Processing Unit)
🔴 Incorrect: A bad CPU might prevent the system from booting, but modern systems will still power on, spin fans, and produce error codes or beep codes. A completely dead PC with no response suggests a lack of power, which makes the PSU the more likely suspect. CPU failure is also less common compared to PSU issues and usually shows different symptoms (e.g., freezes, blue screens, error codes).

Explanation:

A) Static IP address ✅
🟢 Correct: Assigning a static IP address ensures the printer keeps the same IP every time it powers on or the network restarts. This consistency is crucial for network resources like shared printers, because clients reference the device by its IP. If the IP changed (as with DHCP), users would lose connectivity until the new address was discovered. A static IP also simplifies DNS entries, print‑server configurations, and avoids conflicts that can arise when dynamic leases expire or are reassigned.

B) Private address
🔴 Incorrect: A private IP address (e.g., 192.168.x.x or 10.x.x.x) refers to non‑routable, internal network ranges. While a printer should indeed use a private address on a LAN, simply choosing a private address does not guarantee it remains the same across reboots. Without explicitly setting it to static rather than assigned via DHCP, the address may still change—defeating the persistence requirement.

C) Wi‑Fi on the printer
🔴 Incorrect: Enabling Wi‑Fi connectivity allows the printer to join a wireless network, but it says nothing about IP persistence. Whether wired or wireless, if the printer uses DHCP, its address can change when the network restarts. Additionally, Wi‑Fi introduces variability (signal strength, SSID configurations) that is irrelevant to ensuring a consistent network identity. Thus, Wi‑Fi capability alone does not fulfill the requirement.

D) Dynamic addressing
🔴 Incorrect: Dynamic addressing (DHCP) automatically assigns IP addresses to devices but does not guarantee the same address on every reboot or network restart. DHCP leases can expire or be reallocated, causing the printer’s IP to change. This leads to print‑job failures or the need to reconfigure clients. Therefore, dynamic addressing directly conflicts with the goal of maintaining continuous availability under a fixed network identity.

Explanation:

A) Rollers ✅
🟢 Correct: The rollers in a printer are responsible for pulling the paper through the various stages of the print process. If the paper is consistently getting stuck at the end of the print cycle, it's often due to worn-out or dirty exit rollers. These rollers may lose traction over time, causing the paper to not be properly ejected. This issue leads to jams where the paper stops just before exiting the printer. Cleaning or replacing the rollers typically resolves the issue, making them the most likely culprit.

B) Tray assembly
🔴 Incorrect: The tray assembly holds and feeds paper into the printer at the beginning of the printing process. If there were a problem with the tray, issues would be observed during the paper feed stage (e.g., failure to pick up paper or skewed feeding), not at the end of the printing cycle. Since the question specifies the jam occurs at the last stage, the tray assembly is unlikely to be the source of the problem.

C) Toner
🔴 Incorrect: The toner cartridge is responsible for applying ink to the paper via electrostatic transfer and fusing. While toner issues can result in poor print quality (e.g., faded text, blotchy images), they do not typically cause physical paper jams. A faulty toner would affect appearance but not the mechanical feeding or output stages of printing. Therefore, toner is unrelated to the paper getting stuck during output.

D) Printhead
🔴 Incorrect: A printhead is used primarily in inkjet printers to spray ink onto the paper. However, the scenario described (paper getting stuck at the end of printing) suggests a mechanical feed issue, not an ink application one. Moreover, the question likely refers to a laser or general office printer, which may not even use a printhead. Thus, a printhead issue would not cause a paper jam during the final stage of printing.