CompTIA 220-1201 Practice Test
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Updated On : 13-Aug-2025208 Questions
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Topic 1: Main Questions
A technician is putting RJ45 connectors on Cat 6 cables. Which of the following tools should the technician use to secure the connectors?
A. Loopback plug
B. Wire cutters
C. Punchdown
D. Crimping
Explanation:
A crimping tool is used to attach RJ45 connectors to Cat 6 cables by pressing the connector’s metal pins into the twisted pair wires inside the cable, ensuring a secure and reliable electrical connection for Ethernet networking. This tool is essential for terminating network cables properly, enabling them to be used in switches, routers, and computers while maintaining consistent connectivity and data transmission.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option A (Loopback plug):
A loopback plug is a testing tool used to diagnose and verify network port functionality by sending signals back into the port for testing purposes. It is not used to attach or secure RJ45 connectors onto cables. Instead, it is used after cables are terminated to test connectivity, making it unsuitable for the task of physically securing connectors.
Option B (Wire cutters):
Wire cutters are used to cut cables to the desired length or to strip the jacket off cables to expose the inner wires. However, they do not secure RJ45 connectors onto the cable ends. Crimping tools are required for this task, while wire cutters are only part of the cable preparation process before crimping occurs.
Option C (Punchdown):
A punchdown tool is used to terminate network cables onto patch panels or keystone jacks by pushing wires into IDC terminals, not for crimping RJ45 connectors onto the ends of cables. It is essential for structured cabling but not for direct connector installation on patch cables, which requires a crimping tool instead.
A help desk technician needs to work on a high-volume printer. Users have reported occasional paper jams and smudges appearing on printed documents. Which of the following steps should the technician do next to address these issues?
A. Perform a full factory reset.
B. Check and clean the rollers.
C. Change all the ink or toner cartridges.
D. Replace the fuser.
Explanation:
Checking and cleaning the printer’s rollers addresses common causes of paper jams and smudges, as dirty or worn rollers can fail to grip the paper properly, causing jams, or can transfer dirt and toner residue, leading to smudges on printed pages. Cleaning rollers is a standard first troubleshooting step before more invasive repairs, helping to restore proper paper handling and print quality.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option A (Perform a full factory reset):
Performing a factory reset clears printer settings and network configurations but does not resolve hardware-related issues such as dirty rollers causing paper jams and smudges. Since the reported issues are mechanical, a reset would not address the root cause and may add unnecessary reconfiguration work without fixing the immediate problem.
Option C (Change all the ink or toner cartridges):
Replacing ink or toner cartridges is necessary when prints are faded or low on ink/toner, but it will not resolve paper jams or smudges caused by dirty rollers. Changing cartridges without checking the rollers would be an unnecessary expense and would not address the primary issue of paper feed and contamination within the printer.
Option D (Replace the fuser):
The fuser is responsible for bonding toner to paper using heat and pressure, and while a failing fuser can cause smudges, it is a more advanced replacement step. Cleaning the rollers is a simpler and less costly action that should be performed first, as dirty rollers are a more common and easily resolvable cause of smudges and jams.
A technician needs to confirm that desktop PCs can be deployed to a global, remote workforce. Which of the following specifications should the technician validate?
A. Input voltage
B. BIOS language support
C. Supply chain security
D. Power efficiency
Explanation:
Validating input voltage ensures that desktop PCs can operate in different countries with varying power standards (e.g., 110V or 220V) without damage or compatibility issues. Since the devices will be deployed globally, it is essential to confirm that their power supplies support the input voltage of each region to prevent operational failures or electrical hazards.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option B (BIOS language support):
While BIOS language support is useful for end-user convenience, it does not affect the device's ability to operate in different countries physically. The primary concern when deploying hardware globally is ensuring compatibility with electrical standards, making BIOS language a secondary consideration.
Option C (Supply chain security):
Supply chain security ensures the integrity of hardware during manufacturing and distribution but does not affect whether the hardware can function in various global regions. It is important for device authenticity and tamper resistance but is unrelated to validating operational deployment in countries with different power standards.
Option D (Power efficiency):
Power efficiency relates to how much power a device consumes during operation, affecting cost and environmental impact. However, it does not determine whether the device can physically operate in different voltage environments, which is essential for global deployment, making it a less critical factor in this context.
A company uses vital legacy software that does not run in the current OS version Which of the following will best support the software while keeping the OS current?
A. Shared resources
B. System sandbox
C. Test development
D. Application visualization
Explanation:
Application virtualization allows the legacy software to run in a virtualized container environment on top of the current operating system, isolating it while maintaining compatibility. This enables organizations to continue using essential legacy software without downgrading or compromising the main OS environment, maintaining system security and compliance while preserving legacy functionality.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option A (Shared resources):
Shared resources refer to network shares, printers, or other communal assets on a network and do not address compatibility issues with running legacy applications on current operating systems. They cannot resolve software incompatibility problems between a legacy application and a modern OS environment.
Option B (System sandbox):
A system sandbox isolates applications for security testing or execution without affecting the host system, but it may not provide the environment or dependencies necessary for running incompatible legacy software effectively. Application virtualization, on the other hand, specifically facilitates running legacy applications alongside modern systems.
Option C (Test development):
Test development refers to testing software in a development environment to assess compatibility or functionality but does not address how to run legacy software in production alongside a modern OS. It is useful for planning migrations but does not provide a solution for running legacy applications on current systems.
A user routinely connects and disconnects multiple devices from a laptop. Which of the following options should a technician recommend to facilitate ease of user mobility?
A. Serial interfaces
B. Docking station
C. Network switch
D. USB hub
Explanation:
A docking station allows users to connect and disconnect multiple devices (monitors, keyboards, mice, network cables, and peripherals) using a single connection to their laptop, significantly improving mobility and workflow efficiency. It reduces cable clutter and the hassle of manually connecting each device, making it ideal for users who frequently move with their laptops.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option A (Serial interfaces):
Serial interfaces are outdated connections used for legacy peripherals like older modems or industrial equipment and do not facilitate modern device management or improve user mobility. They do not support the simultaneous connection of multiple devices or ease the workflow of frequently docking and undocking devices from a laptop.
Option C (Network switch):
A network switch connects multiple devices on a network to facilitate communication but does not assist in connecting and managing multiple peripherals for a laptop user. It is a networking device, not a tool for improving personal device connectivity or mobility for users managing multiple peripherals.
Option D (USB hub):
While a USB hub expands the number of USB ports for connecting multiple peripherals, it does not provide video output, network connectivity, or power delivery features found in docking stations. It is a limited solution compared to a docking station, which fully supports seamless connections for a mobile user’s complete workspace.
While reviewing options in the BIOS/UEFI settings page to fix a laptop issue, a support technician notices an option to clear existing TPM keys. Which of the following would most likely happen if the TPM is cleared?
A. Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
B. All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
C. The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform
D. The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
Explanation:
Clearing TPM (Trusted Platform Module) keys deletes encryption keys stored within the TPM, which are required to access data on encrypted drives protected with BitLocker or similar technologies. Without these keys, the system will no longer be able to decrypt the drive, making the data inaccessible unless a recovery key is provided, directly affecting encrypted hard drive access.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option B (All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots):
Clearing the TPM does not remove all system security certificates installed within the OS or in certificate stores for HTTPS and device authentication. Certificates are generally managed separately from TPM key storage and clearing TPM will not mandate reinstalling all certificates from trusted root authorities.
Option C (The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform):
MDM (Mobile Device Management) enrollment relies on device identity and management profiles, which may use TPM for hardware-backed security but do not automatically require reenrollment solely because TPM keys are cleared. MDM enrollment would typically persist unless specifically tied to TPM keys.
Option D (The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client):
Clearing TPM does not remove domain membership or the computer’s AD object registration within a domain. The system will still retain its domain identity, and re-registration would only be needed if a domain trust issue occurs, not directly from TPM key clearance.
An SAS RAID array has severely degraded and gone offline A systems administrator examines the syslog, and the point of failure is not obvious. Which of the following techniques should the administrator use to identify the issue (Select two).
A. Run a magnet over each drive.
B. Check if one of the drives is not level
C. Listen for clicking and grinding noises
D. Check the OS logs
E. Update the RAID controller firmware.
F. Check the historical SMART data
F. Check the historical SMART data
Explanation:
Option C (Listen for clicking and grinding noises):
Listening for clicking or grinding noises helps identify mechanical failures within the drives, such as head crashes or spindle failures, which are common causes of RAID array degradation. These audible cues can quickly pinpoint which drive has failed physically, allowing the administrator to replace the failing drive promptly.
Option F (Check the historical SMART data):
Checking the historical SMART (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) data provides a clear view of drive health metrics over time, including reallocated sectors, pending sector counts, and error rates. This can help the administrator identify which drive is failing or about to fail, providing data-backed evidence for replacement and improving RAID health assessment.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option A (Run a magnet over each drive):
Running a magnet over a drive would destroy data on the disks and is not a troubleshooting technique. It would render the drives unusable, permanently damaging the data and making recovery impossible. This action is used for secure data destruction, not for diagnosing RAID failures.
Option B (Check if one of the drives is not level):
Drive level orientation is not typically a cause of RAID degradation, as modern drives can operate in various positions if designed to do so. Checking drive orientation does not diagnose hardware failures or SMART errors, making it ineffective for identifying the point of RAID failure.
Option D (Check the OS logs):
While OS logs can provide insights into system-level errors, they often lack detailed hardware diagnostics for RAID-specific failures. They might show input/output errors but do not provide granular, drive-specific health data necessary for pinpointing RAID degradation causes, unlike SMART logs and physical inspection.
Option E (Update the RAID controller firmware):
Updating RAID controller firmware is maintenance that may fix bugs, but it does not help in identifying which drive caused a RAID failure in a degraded array. Firmware updates during a failure can add risk and will not pinpoint hardware faults in the drives themselves, which is critical for recovery planning.
A technician is troubleshooting stylus issues on identical, company-provided tablets. Users can purchase their own accessories. Some users have no issues, but others report that their styluses charge intermittently and die frequently. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. Certain cases are causing charging issues.
B. The tablets need to be updated.
C. Some of the tablets have manufacturing defects.
D. The malfunctioning styluses need firmware updates
Explanation:
Certain protective cases can obstruct the stylus charging contact points or wireless charging zones on tablets, causing intermittent charging or preventing charging entirely. Since only some users are experiencing issues while others with identical tablets are not, the variable is likely third-party accessories like cases that physically block or interfere with the charging mechanism.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option B (The tablets need to be updated):
If outdated firmware or OS was causing the charging issues, it would typically affect all tablets of the same model, not just those of specific users. The inconsistency across users makes a case-related hardware obstruction more likely than a software update issue.
Option C (Some of the tablets have manufacturing defects):
Manufacturing defects could cause charging issues, but these issues would typically appear immediately and consistently, not intermittently. The random nature across users, paired with third-party accessories, points away from systemic manufacturing faults and more toward user-added accessories as the variable.
Option D (The malfunctioning styluses need firmware updates):
Stylus firmware updates can fix specific issues but are unlikely to cause intermittent charging across only some users unless the updates were universally missing, which would affect all users. The variability in who experiences the issue aligns better with accessories affecting physical contact points.
Which of the following networking devices is used to create a mesh network?
A. Modem
B. DSL
C. Access point
D. ONT
Explanation:
An access point (AP) can be configured or designed to work within a mesh network, allowing multiple APs to interconnect wirelessly to expand network coverage without requiring a direct wired connection for each AP. This enables seamless roaming, extended coverage in large areas, and redundancy in enterprise and home Wi-Fi environments, which is the core of mesh networking.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option A (Modem):
A modem modulates and demodulates signals for internet access, connecting the user to the ISP. It does not distribute network traffic within a local environment or participate in mesh networking, which requires interconnection between multiple APs to extend wireless coverage.
Option B (DSL):
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) refers to a type of internet connection technology over phone lines. It is not a networking device and does not create or participate in a mesh network. DSL services provide connectivity to the internet but do not handle local mesh wireless communication between devices.
Option D (ONT):
An ONT (Optical Network Terminal) converts fiber optic signals into electrical signals for use in a home or business but does not distribute wireless connectivity or participate in mesh networking. It is a demarcation device for fiber connections and cannot facilitate or expand wireless mesh coverage.
A technician wants to upgrade a computer to a new Windows version. The Windows Upgrade Advisor states that the computer is not compatible with the new Windows version due to a lack of TPM 2.0 support. Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Enable the module in the UEFI BIOS.
B. Install an HSM in the computer.
C. Perform a clean Install of the new Windows version.
D. Implement BitLocker on the computer.
Explanation:
Many motherboards have TPM 2.0 modules integrated but disabled by default in BIOS/UEFI settings. Enabling TPM in the UEFI BIOS can resolve the compatibility block from Windows Upgrade Advisor, allowing the system to meet the security requirements for the upgrade without additional hardware, enabling the technician to proceed with the Windows upgrade.
❌ Why answer is wrong:
Option B (Install an HSM in the computer):
An HSM (Hardware Security Module) is an enterprise-grade cryptographic device, not a replacement for TPM in typical Windows upgrade scenarios. It does not integrate with the PC firmware for Windows TPM requirements and is unnecessary for satisfying Windows upgrade compatibility.
Option C (Perform a clean install of the new Windows version):
A clean install will not bypass TPM requirements for Windows, as the OS checks for TPM during installation and will block it if TPM 2.0 is not enabled. Performing a clean install will fail unless TPM is enabled first, making this step premature.
Option D (Implement BitLocker on the computer):
BitLocker uses TPM for storing encryption keys but does not enable TPM functionality by itself. Implementing BitLocker will fail if TPM is not active and will not assist in satisfying Windows upgrade requirements that mandate TPM 2.0, making it irrelevant in this scenario.
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