CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test
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Updated On : 30-Jun-2025389 Questions
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An organization maintains intellectual property that it wants to protect. Which of the following concepts would be most beneficial to add to the company's security awareness training program?
A. Insider threat detection
B. Simulated threats
C. Phishing awareness
D. Business continuity planning
Explanation: For an organization that wants to protect its intellectual property, adding insider threat detection to the security awareness training program would be most beneficial. Insider threats can be particularly dangerous because they come from trusted individuals within the organization who have legitimate access to sensitive nformation. Insider threat detection: Focuses on identifying and mitigating threats from within the organization, including employees, contractors, or business partners who might misuse their access. Simulated threats: Often used for testing security measures and training, but not specifically focused on protecting intellectual property. Phishing awareness: Important for overall security but more focused on preventing external attacks rather than internal threats. Business continuity planning: Ensures the organization can continue operations during and after a disruption but does not directly address protecting intellectual property from insider threats. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.6 - Implement security awareness practices (Insider threat detection).
Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?
A. Firmware version
B. Buffer overflow
C. SQL injection
D. Cross-site scripting
Explanation: Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity.
A company wants to verify that the software the company is deploying came from the vendor the company purchased the software from. Which of the following is the best way for the company to confirm this information?
A. Validate the code signature.
B. Execute the code in a sandbox.
C. Search the executable for ASCII strings.
D. Generate a hash of the files.
Explanation: Validating the code signature is the best way to verify software authenticity, as it ensures that the software has not been tampered with and that it comes from a verified source. Code signatures are digital signatures applied by the software vendor, and validating them confirms the software's integrity and origin. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.
A small business uses kiosks on the sales floor to display product information for customers. A security team discovers the kiosks use end-of-life operating systems. Which of the following is the security team most likely to document as a security implication of the current architecture?
A. Patch availability
B. Product software compatibility
C. Ease of recovery
D. Cost of replacement
Explanation: End-of-life operating systems are those that are no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, meaning they do not receive any security updates or patches. This makes them vulnerable to exploits and attacks that take advantage of known or unknown flaws in the software. Patch availability is the security implication of using end-of-life operating systems, as it affects the ability to fix or prevent security issues. Other factors, such as product software compatibility, ease of recovery, or cost of replacement, are not directly related to security, but rather to functionality, availability, or budget.
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
A. Tabletop
B. Replication
C. Failover
D. Recovery
Explanation: A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization’s incident response plan and procedures. It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the participants.
Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Select two).
A. Fencing
B. Video surveillance
C. Badge access
D. Access control vestibule
E. Sign-in sheet
F. Sensor
D. Access control vestibule
A new vulnerability enables a type of malware that allows the unauthorized movement of data from a system. Which of the following would detect this behavior?
A. Implementing encryption
B. Monitoring outbound traffic
C. Using default settings
D. Closing all open ports
Explanation: Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.
A network administrator deployed a DNS logging tool that togs suspicious websites that are visited and then sends a daily report based on various weighted metrics. Which of the following best describes the type of control the administrator put in place?
A. Preventive
B. Deterrent
C. Corrective
D. Detective
Explanation: The tool that the network administrator deployed is described as one that logs suspicious websites and sends a daily report based on various weighted metrics. This fits the description of a detective control. Detective controls are designed to identify and log security events or incidents after they have occurred. By analyzing these logs and generating reports, the tool helps in detecting potential security breaches, thus allowing for further investigation and response.
A systems administrator is working on a defense-in-depth strategy and needs to restrict activity from employees after hours. Which of the following should the systems administrator implement?
A. Role-based restrictions
B. Attribute-based restrictions
C. Mandatory restrictions
D. Time-of-day restrictions
Explanation: To restrict activity from employees after hours, the systems administrator should implement time-of-day restrictions. This method allows access to network resources to be limited to specific times, ensuring that employees can only access systems during approved working hours. This is an effective part of a defense-in-depth strategy to mitigate risks associated with unauthorized access during off-hours, which could be a time when security monitoring might be less stringent. Time-of-day restrictions: These control access based on the time of day, preventing users from logging in or accessing certain systems outside of designated hours. Role-based restrictions: Control access based on a user’s role within the organization. Attribute-based restrictions: Use various attributes (such as location, department, or project) to determine access rights. Mandatory restrictions: Typically refer to non-discretionary access controls, such as those based on government or organizational policy.
Which of the following types of identification methods can be performed on a deployed application during runtime?
A. Dynamic analysis
B. Code review
C. Package monitoring
D. Bug bounty
Explanation: Dynamic analysis is performed on software during execution to identify vulnerabilities based on how the software behaves in real-world scenarios. It is useful in detecting security issues that only appear when the application is running.
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