CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test
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Updated On : 30-Jun-2025389 Questions
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Which of the following is the final step of the modem response process?
A. Lessons learned
B. Eradication
C. Containment
D. Recovery
Explanation: The final step in the incident response process is "Lessons learned." This step involves reviewing and analyzing the incident to understand what happened, how it was handled, and what could be improved. The goal is to improve future response efforts and prevent similar incidents from occurring. It's essential for refining the incident response plan and enhancing overall security posture. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of incident response and recovery.
A systems administrator is creating a script that would save time and prevent human error when performing account creation for a large number of end users. Which of the following would be a good use case for this task?
A. Off-the-shelf software
B. Orchestration
C. Baseline
D. Policy enforcement
Explanation: Orchestration is the process of automating multiple tasks across different systems and applications. It can help save time and reduce human error by executing predefined workflows and scripts. In this case, the systems administrator can use orchestration to create accounts for a large number of end users without having to manually enter their information and assign permissions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457 1
A security manager created new documentation to use in response to various types of security incidents. Which of the following is the next step the manager should take?
A. Set the maximum data retention policy.
B. Securely store the documents on an air-gapped network.
C. Review the documents' data classification policy.
D. Conduct a tabletop exercise with the team.
Explanation: A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2841. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 6: Risk Management, page 2842.
An organization recently started hosting a new service that customers access through a web portal. A security engineer needs to add to the existing security devices a new solution to protect this new service. Which of the following is the engineer most likely to deploy?
A. Layer 4 firewall
B. NGFW
C. WAF
D. UTM
Explanation: The security engineer is likely to deploy a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to protect the new web portal service. A WAF specifically protects web applications by filtering, monitoring, and blocking HTTP requests based on a set of rules. This is crucial for preventing common attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other web-based attacks that could compromise the web service. Layer 4 firewall operates primarily at the transport layer, focusing on IP address and port filtering, making it unsuitable for web application-specific threats. NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) provides more advanced filtering than traditional firewalls, including layer 7 inspection, but the WAF is tailored specifically for web traffic. UTM (Unified Threat Management) offers a suite of security tools in one package (like antivirus, firewall, and content filtering), but for web application-specific protection, a WAF is the best fit.
A company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will most likely be classified? (Select two).
A. Private
B. Confidential
C. Public
D. Operational
E. Urgent
F. Restricted
F. Restricted
Explanation: Data classification is the process of assigning labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact. Different organizations and sectors may have different data classification schemes, but a common one is the following1: Public: Data that can be freely disclosed to anyone without any harm or risk. Private: Data that is intended for internal use only and may cause some harm or risk if disclosed. Confidential: Data that is intended for authorized use only and may cause significant harm or risk if disclosed. Restricted: Data that is intended for very limited use only and may cause severe harm or risk if disclosed. In this scenario, the company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. This data is likely to be classified as confidential and restricted, because it is not meant for public or private use, and it may cause serious damage to national security or public safety if disclosed. The government may also have specific requirements or regulations for handling such data, such as encryption, access control, and auditing2. References: 1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17 2: Data Classification Practices: Final Project Description Released
An external vendor recently visited a company's headquarters tor a presentation. Following the visit a member of the hosting team found a file that the external vendor left behind on a server. The file contained detailed architecture information and code snippets. Which of the following data types best describes this file?
A. Government
B. Public
C. Proprietary
D. Critical
Explanation: The file left by the external vendor, containing detailed architecture information and code snippets, is best described as proprietary data. Proprietary data is information that is owned by a company and is essential to its competitive advantage. It includes sensitive business information such as trade secrets, intellectual property, and confidential data that should be protected from unauthorized access.
Security controls in a data center are being reviewed to ensure data is properly protected and that human life considerations are included. Which of the following best describes how the controls should be set up?
A. Remote access points should fail closed.
B. Logging controls should fail open.
C. Safety controls should fail open.
D. Logical security controls should fail closed.
Explanation: Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors. Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still trigger the sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked. Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis. Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center’s network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics. Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall. Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems.
Which of the following is the first step to take when creating an anomaly detection process?
A. Selecting events
B. Building a baseline
C. Selecting logging options
D. Creating an event log
Explanation: The first step in creating an anomaly detection process is building a baseline of normal behavior within the system. This baseline serves as a reference point to identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate a security incident. By understanding what normal activity looks like, security teams can more effectively detect and respond to suspicious behavior.
Which of the following methods would most likely be used to identify legacy systems?
A. Bug bounty program
B. Vulnerability scan
C. Package monitoring
D. Dynamic analysis
Explanation: A vulnerability scan is the most likely method to identify legacy systems. These scans assess an organization's network and systems for known vulnerabilities, including outdated or unsupported software (i.e., legacy systems) that may pose a security risk. The scan results can highlight systems that are no longer receiving updates, helping IT teams address these risks. Bug bounty programs are used to incentivize external researchers to find security flaws, but they are less effective at identifying legacy systems.
A company implemented an MDM policy 10 mitigate risks after repealed instances of employees losing company-provided mobile phones. In several cases. The lost phones were used maliciously to perform social engineering attacks against other employees. Which of the following MDM features should be configured to best address this issue? (Select two).
A. Screen locks
B. Remote wipe
C. Full device encryption
D. Push notifications
E. Application management
F. Geolocation
B. Remote wipe
Explanation: Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.
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