CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test

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Updated On : 30-Jun-2025
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An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?

A. Secured zones

B. Subject role

C. Adaptive identity

D. Threat scope reduction


D.   Threat scope reduction

Explanation: The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network. One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat. The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.

A healthcare organization wants to provide a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies. Which of the following is the most important consideration during development?

A. Scalability

B. Availability

C. Cost

D. Ease of deployment


B.   Availability

Explanation: Availability is the ability of a system or service to be accessible and usable when needed. For a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies, availability is the most important consideration during development, because any downtime or delay could have serious consequences for the health and safety of the users. The web application should be designed to handle high traffic, prevent denial-of- service attacks, and have backup and recovery plans in case of failures2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 41.

The security operations center is researching an event concerning a suspicious IP address A security analyst looks at the following event logs and discovers that a significant portion of the user accounts have experienced faded log-In attempts when authenticating from the same IP address:



Which of the following most likely describes attack that took place?

A. Spraying

B. Brute-force

C. Dictionary

D. Rainbow table


A.   Spraying

Explanation: Password spraying is a type of attack where an attacker tries a small number of commonly used passwords across a large number of accounts. The event logs showing failed login attempts for many user accounts from the same IP address are indicative of a password spraying attack, where the attacker is attempting to gain access by guessing common passwords.

A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?

A. Packet captures

B. Vulnerability scans

C. Metadata

D. Dashboard


D.   Dashboard

Explanation: A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.

A technician wants to improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work. Which of the following is the best option?

A. Send out periodic security reminders.

B. Update the content of new hire documentation.

C. Modify the content of recurring training. D Implement a phishing campaign


C.   Modify the content of recurring training. D Implement a phishing campaign

Explanation: Recurring training is a type of security awareness training that is conducted periodically to refresh and update the knowledge and skills of the users. Recurring training can help improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work, as it can cover the latest threats, best practices, and policies that are relevant to their work environment. Modifying the content of recurring training can ensure that the users are aware of the current security landscape and the expectations of their roles. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 232. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.

A company's end users are reporting that they are unable to reach external websites. After reviewing the performance data for the DNS severs, the analyst discovers that the CPU, disk, and memory usage are minimal, but the network interface is flooded with inbound traffic. Network logs show only a small number of DNS queries sent to this server. Which of the following best describes what the security analyst is seeing?

A. Concurrent session usage

B. Secure DNS cryptographic downgrade

C. On-path resource consumption

D. Reflected denial of service


D.   Reflected denial of service

Which of the following would be used to detect an employee who is emailing a customer list to a personal account before leaving the company?

A. DLP

B. FIM

C. IDS

D. EDR


A.   DLP

Explanation: To detect an employee who is emailing a customer list to a personal account before leaving the company, a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system would be used. DLP systems are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive data. DLP (Data Loss Prevention): Monitors and controls data transfers to ensure sensitive information is not sent to unauthorized recipients. FIM (File Integrity Monitoring): Monitors changes to files to detect unauthorized modifications. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity but does not specifically prevent data leakage. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response): Monitors and responds to threats on endpoints but is not specifically focused on data leakage. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.5 - Modify enterprise capabilities to enhance security (Data Loss Prevention).

In order to strengthen a password and prevent a hacker from cracking it, a random string of 36 characters was added to the password. Which of the following best describes this technique?

A. Key stretching

B. Tokenization

C. Data masking

D. Salting


D.   Salting

Explanation:Adding a random string of characters, known as a "salt," to a password before hashing it is known as salting. This technique strengthens passwords by ensuring that even if two users have the same password, their hashes will be different due to the unique salt, making it much harder for attackers to crack passwords using precomputed tables. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?

A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53

B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53

C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25/32 port 53

D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53


D.   Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53

Explanation: A firewall ACL (access control list) is a set of rules that determines which traffic is allowed or denied by the firewall. The rules are processed in order, from top to bottom, until a match is found. The syntax of a firewall ACL rule is:
Access list
To limit outbound DNS traffic originating from the internal network, the firewall ACL should allow only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send DNS requests to any destination on port 53, and deny all other outbound traffic on port 53. The correct firewall ACL is:
Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
The first rule permits outbound traffic from the source address 10.50.10.25/32 (a single host) to any destination address (0.0.0.0/0) on port 53 (DNS). The second rule denies all other outbound traffic on port 532.
References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, page 175.

Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?

A. Encrypted

B. Intellectual property

C. Critical

D. Data in transit


B.   Intellectual property

Explanation: Intellectual property is a type of data that consists of ideas, inventions, designs, or other creative works that have commercial value and are protected by law. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property data in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products or services for the company. Intellectual property data needs to be protected from unauthorized use, disclosure, or theft, as it can give the company a competitive advantage in the market. Therefore, these employees receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect this type of data. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 1.2 - Security Concepts, 7:57 - 9:03.

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