CompTIA N10-009 Practice Test
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Updated On : 30-Jun-2025240 Questions
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A network administrator needs to add 255 useable IP addresses to the network. A /24 is currently in use. Which of the following prefixes would fulfill this need?
A. /23
B. /25
C. /29
D. /32
Explanation
A /23 subnet provides 512 total addresses, of which 510 are usable (subtracting 2 for
network and broadcast addresses). This would satisfy the need for 255 additional
addresses.
A technician is designing a cloud service solution that will accommodate the company's current size, compute capacity, and storage capacity. Which of the following cloud deployment models will fulfill these requirements?
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. IaC
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides scalable compute power, storage, and
networking resources on demand. It is the best choice for a company that needs to
customize its cloud solution based on size, compute capacity, and storage needs.
IaaS Benefits:
- Provides virtual machines, storage, and networking resources.
- Scalable based on company needs.
- Reduces the need for physical infrastructure.
- A. SaaS (Software as a Service): Delivers software applications (e.g., Google Docs, Microsoft 365) but does not provide compute/storage infrastructure.
- B. PaaS (Platform as a Service): Provides a development environment for application deployment but not full infrastructure control.
- D. IaC (Infrastructure as Code): A methodology for automating infrastructure, not a cloud deployment model.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps would provide a change advisory board with the information needed to make a decision?
A. Identify the problem.
B. Develop a theory of probable cause.
C. Test the theory to determine cause.
D. Establish a plan of action.
Explanation:
- A Change Advisory Board (CAB) reviews and approves network changes. Before approval, they need a detailed action plan outlining the change, potential impacts, and mitigation strategies.
- A Plan of Action includes risk assessments, rollback procedures, and deployment steps, which are critical for decision-making.
Which of the following network topologies contains a direct connection between every node in the network?
A. Mesh
B. Hub-and-spoke
C. Star
D. Point-to-point
Explanation
In a mesh topology, every node is directly connected to every other node. This provides
high redundancy and reliability, as there are multiple paths for data to travel between
nodes. This topology is often used in networks where high availability is crucial.
A company receives a cease-and-desist order from its ISP regarding prohibited torrent activity. Which of the following should be implemented to comply with the cease-and-desist order?
A. MAC security
B. Content filtering
C. Screened subnet
D. Perimeter network
Explanation:
Content filtering can be used to block or restrict access to websites and services that
facilitate torrenting and other prohibited activities. By implementing content filtering, the
company can comply with the ISP's cease-and-desist order and prevent users from
accessing torrent sites and engaging in prohibited activities.
Which of the following should be used to obtain remote access to a network appliance that has failed to start up properly?
A. Crash cart
B. Jump box
C. Secure Shell (SSH)
D. Out-of-band management
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
If a network appliance fails to start, standard remote access methods like SSH won't
work. Instead, Out-of-Band (OOB) management provides a dedicated access path(e.g., a console portoriDRAC/iLO), allowing administrators to troubleshoot devices even when the
network is down.
Breakdown of Options:
A. Crash cart– A physical monitor/keyboard setup, not a remote solution.
B. Jump box– A hardened system used for secure remote access but requires the
device to be operational.
C. Secure Shell (SSH)– Requires the device to be fully booted and network connected.
D. Out-of-band management–Correct answer. Provides independent
access for troubleshooting failed network devices.
A network administrator deployed wireless networking in the office area. When users visit the outdoor patio and try to download emails with large attachments or stream training videos, they notice buffering issues. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. Network congestion
B. Wireless interference
C. Signal degradation
D. Client disassociation
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The mostlikely causeof buffering issues when moving outdoors issignal degradation.
Wireless signals weaken as they travel through obstacles such as walls, glass, and air,
leading toweaker connections and reduced data rates.
Breakdown of Options:
A. Network congestion– While congestion can slow down network speeds, itaffects
all users, not just those moving outdoors.
B. Wireless interference– Interference is possible but ismore likely caused by other
wireless signalsrather than outdoor movement.
C. Signal degradation–Correct answer.Wireless signals weaken withdistance and
obstaclessuch as walls, reducing performance.
D. Client disassociation– Disassociation occurs when clientslose connection to the
AP, but the question states that usersexperience buffering, indicating they are still
connected but with a weak signal.
Which of the following is a major difference between an IPS and IDS?
A. An IPS needs to be installed in line with traffic and an IDS does not.
B. An IPS is signature-based and an IDS is not.
C. An IPS is less susceptible to false positives than an IDS.
D. An IPS requires less administrative overhead than an IDS.
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
- The key difference is that an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is installed in line with network traffic, allowing it to actively block threats. In contrast, an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) only monitors and alerts without actively blocking traffic.
A. An IPS needs to be installed in line with traffic and an IDS does not. Correct answer. IPS actively prevents threats, while IDS only detects them.
B. An IPS is signature-based and an IDS is not.–False, both can use signature based detection.
C. An IPS is less susceptible to false positives than an IDS.–False, both can produce false positives, depending on configurations.
D. An IPS requires less administrative overhead than an IDS.–False, IPS requires more administrative effort due to real-time blocking decisions.
A network administrator suspects users are being sent to malware sites that are posing as legitimate sites. The network administrator investigates and discovers that user workstations are configured with incorrect DNS IP addresses. Which of the following should the network administrator implement to prevent this from happening again?
A. Dynamic ARP inspection
B. Access control lists
C. DHCP snooping
D. Port security
Explanation:
DHCP snooping is a security feature on network switches that helps to prevent
unauthorized (rogue) DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to clients. By
implementing DHCP snooping, the network administrator can restrict DHCP responses to
authorized servers only, preventing unauthorized DHCP configurations, such as incorrect
DNS IPs, from being assigned to clients. This helps prevent man-in-the-middle attacks
where malicious actors misconfigure DNS to redirect users to fraudulent sites.
Which of the following must be implemented to securely connect a company's headquarters with a branch location?
A. Split-tunnel VPN
B. Clientless VPN
C. Full-tunnel VPN
D. Site-to-site VPN
Explanation:
Site-to-Site VPN: A site-to-site VPN is used to securely connect two networks, such as a company's headquarters and a branch location, over the internet. This type of VPN creates a secure tunnel for data transmission, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.
Split-tunnel VPN (A): Allows some traffic to bypass the VPN tunnel, which may not secure all communications.
Clientless VPN (B): Used for individual users to access the network without VPN client software.
Full-tunnel VPN (C): Typically used for individual user traffic rather than connecting two networks.
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