CompTIA FC0-U71 Practice Test 2026

Explanation:
The CompTIA troubleshooting methodology is a structured, step-by-step process. The standard order of these steps is as follows:

Identify the problem.

Establish a theory of probable cause.

Test the theory to determine the cause.

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.

Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

The question states that the technician has already completed step 2 ("identifies the potential cause," which is the same as "establishing a theory"). Therefore, the immediate next step in the logical sequence is to test that theory to see if it is correct.

Why A is Correct:
"Test the theory" is the direct and official next step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model after a theory of probable cause has been established.

Why B is Incorrect:
"Create a plan of action" is step 4. You cannot create a plan to fix the problem until you have first confirmed what the exact cause is by testing your theory.

Why C is Incorrect:
"Document the findings" is the final step (step 6). Documentation happens after the problem has been solved and verified.

Why D is Incorrect:
"Verify system functionality" is step 5. This occurs after you have implemented your solution to ensure the fix worked and didn't cause any new issues.

Reference:
This question tests knowledge of the CompTIA Troubleshooting Model, a core competency across many CompTIA certifications, including ITF+. It falls under the IT Concepts and Terminology domain, specifically regarding the application of foundational troubleshooting methodology.

Explanation:
Predictive text is a technology that suggests words or phrases a user might want to type next, based on the initial letters typed, common language patterns, and the user's personal typing history.

Why C is Correct:
Modern predictive text systems rely heavily on Artificial Intelligence, specifically a branch of AI called Natural Language Processing (NLP) and machine learning. These systems are trained on massive datasets of text (e.g., books, articles, websites). They use this training to learn language patterns, grammar, context, and even personal style to predict the most likely next word efficiently. The system continuously learns and improves its predictions based on user input, which is a hallmark of AI.

Why A is Incorrect:
Extensions are small software programs that add functionality to a larger application (e.g., a browser extension). While an extension might use predictive text, the predictive text capability itself is powered by underlying AI algorithms, not by the extension format itself.

Why B is Incorrect:
Big data is a related concept but is not the direct answer. Big data refers to the immense volumes of data that are processed. AI systems use big data as their training material to become effective. The predictive text feature is the intelligent application of insights derived from that data, not the data itself.

Why D is Incorrect:
Generated code typically refers to source code that is automatically produced by another tool. This is unrelated to the core function of analyzing language and making contextual predictions. The AI that powers predictive text is programmed with code, but it doesn't function by "generating code" for each prediction.

Reference:
This question falls under the IT Concepts and Terminology domain of the ITF+ exam, specifically testing knowledge of emerging technologies like artificial intelligence and their practical, everyday applications.

Explanation:
This question is testing your understanding of programming concepts and documentation methods.

Why D is Correct:
Pseudocode is specifically designed to be a human-readable description of a program's logic and algorithm. It uses a mix of natural language (like English) and simple programming constructs (like "if-then-else," "loop," "print") to outline the steps of a program without worrying about the strict syntax rules of an actual programming language. Its primary purpose is to be easily understood by humans before the code is written.

Why A is Incorrect:
A branch is a fundamental programming concept (like an if statement) that controls the flow of execution based on a condition. It is a part of actual code or pseudocode, not a type of human-readable description itself.

Why B is Incorrect:
Sequence is one of the three basic control structures in programming (sequence, selection, iteration). It refers to the default order in which instructions are executed, one after another. Like "branch," it is a concept, not a method of documentation.

Why C is Incorrect:
Object-oriented is a popular programming paradigm (a style of programming) that organizes software design around data, or objects, rather than functions and logic. While code written in object-oriented languages can be readable, the term itself describes a methodology, not a human-readable description of a program.

Reference:
This question falls under the Software Development domain of the ITF+ exam, specifically related to understanding programming concepts and the use of tools like pseudocode to plan and design code in a way that is accessible to people.

Explanation:
The question is specifically about mitigating the risk of physical theft of the entire laptop device in a public setting.

Why D is Correct:
A cable lock (also known as a Kensington lock or security cable) is a physical security device designed explicitly to prevent theft. It consists of a strong cable that attaches to a secure, immovable object (like a heavy table) and locks into a special security slot (Kensington slot) built into most laptops. This physically tethers the laptop, making it extremely difficult for someone to quickly snatch and steal it.

Why A is Incorrect:
A firewall is a network security device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules. It protects against digital threats like hackers and malware, but it provides zero protection against the physical theft of the hardware itself.

Why B is Incorrect:
A privacy shield (or privacy filter) is a thin piece of plastic that attaches to a screen to narrow the viewing angle. This protects against "shoulder surfing" and prevents others from seeing sensitive information on the screen. While important for data confidentiality, it does nothing to prevent someone from physically stealing the laptop.

Why C is Incorrect:
A USB lock (or USB blocker) is a device that physically blocks USB ports to prevent unauthorized use of USB devices, such as thumb drives that could be used to introduce malware or steal data. This is a data security measure, not an anti-theft device for the physical laptop.

Reference:
This question tests knowledge from the Security domain of the ITF+ exam, specifically under the objective of implementing basic physical security measures to protect equipment. It highlights the difference between physical security (protecting the hardware) and logical security (protecting the data).

Explanation:
This is a fundamental question about data representation in computing.

Why C is Correct:
By universal standard, a byte is a unit of digital information that consists of 8 bits. This is a foundational definition in computer science.

Why A is Incorrect:
2 bits is a unit that can represent 4 different values (00, 01, 10, 11). This is too small for a standard byte. Historically, byte sizes could vary, but 8 bits has been the standard for decades.

Why B is Incorrect:
4 bits is known as a nibble (or nybble). A nibble is half of a standard byte and can represent 16 different values (0-15 in hexadecimal).

Why D is Incorrect:
16 bits is typically referred to as a word (or specifically a "double byte" or "2 bytes") on many modern systems. The size of a "word" is architecture-dependent, but it is always larger than a single byte.

Reference:
This question falls under the IT Concepts and Terminology domain of the ITF+ exam. It tests core knowledge of basic data units, specifically the definition of a byte versus a bit and other related terms like nibble. This is essential for understanding data storage, memory, and networking concepts where capacities and speeds are measured in bytes and bits.

Explanation:
The key constraints in the question are that the user is in a remote area and that there are no cabling or towers available. This eliminates any internet delivery method that requires physical infrastructure (cables) or nearby cellular towers.

Why D is Correct:
Satellite internet is the best solution because it does not rely on any ground-based infrastructure like cables or local towers. It works by sending a signal from a satellite dish at the user's location to a satellite orbiting the Earth, which then relays the signal to a ground station connected to the internet. This makes it available virtually anywhere with a clear view of the sky, which is ideal for remote locations.

Why A is Incorrect:
Fiber optic internet is the fastest and most modern type of wired connection. However, it requires extensive physical cabling to be run directly to the user's premises, which is precisely what the scenario states is not available.

Why B is Incorrect:
IDSL (ISDN Digital Subscriber Line) is an older technology that provides internet over traditional telephone lines. Like fiber, it is a type of wired connection and requires physical cabling to be present at the location, which rules it out.

Why C is Incorrect:
Cellular internet (e.g., 4G/5G) requires the user to be within range of a cellular network tower to get a signal. The scenario explicitly states that towers are not available, making this option impossible.

Reference:
This question tests knowledge from the Infrastructure domain of the ITF+ exam, specifically under networking and internet connectivity types. It assesses the ability to evaluate the appropriate internet technology based on geographical and infrastructural constraints.

Explanation:
A MAC (Media Access Control) address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller (NIC) for communications at the data link layer of a network segment. It is a hardware address that is burned into the device by the manufacturer.

Why A is Correct:
The format 00:50:09:2D:4D:94 is the standard representation for a MAC address. It is a 48-bit address, most often written as six groups of two hexadecimal digits, separated by colons (:) or hyphens (-). This is a globally unique identifier for a specific physical network device.

Why B is Incorrect:
0x3476 is a simple hexadecimal number, often indicated by the 0x prefix. It does not follow the structure (six groups of two hex digits) of a MAC address.

Why C is Incorrect:
192.68.10.24 is an example of an IPv4 address. IPv4 addresses are logical addresses used for network layer communication and are written as four decimal numbers separated by dots.

Why D is Incorrect:
fe80:102d:cd62:5434:82ae is an example of an IPv6 address. IPv6 addresses are the successor to IPv4 and are written as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. The fe80 prefix is specifically a link-local address in IPv6.

Reference:
This question falls under the Infrastructure domain of the ITF+ exam, specifically testing knowledge of network addressing. It is crucial to distinguish between a physical hardware address (MAC address) and logical network addresses (IPv4 and IPv6).

Explanation:
The core issue is that unauthorized devices have gained access to the network. This almost always means the current Wi-Fi password (the Pre-Shared Key or PSK) has been compromised—either it's too weak, was shared with someone who shouldn't have it, or was bypassed.

Why C is Correct:
Changing the password is the most direct and effective immediate action. It will immediately disconnect all devices (both authorized and unauthorized) from the wireless network. The user can then provide the new, stronger password only to their authorized devices. This severs the access that the unauthorized devices were exploiting.

Why A is Incorrect:
While the internet provider's support might offer general advice, this is not a problem with the internet service itself. The issue is local, within the user's control (their router's security). Calling support would be an inefficient and likely unnecessary step.

Why B is Incorrect:
Decreasing the Wi-Fi signal range might make it harder for a neighbor to connect, but it is an unreliable and ineffective security measure. A determined individual with a good antenna could still pick up the signal, and if the password is still weak or known, they can still connect. Furthermore, this could negatively impact the user's own wireless coverage in their home.

Why D is Incorrect:
Resetting the router (usually with a pinhole button) will often restore it to its factory default settings. This will indeed disconnect all devices, but it also eliminates all other custom settings (like the network name/SSID). Crucially, it will change the password back to the default password printed on the router's label, which is often well-known and extremely weak. This would make the network even less secure unless the user immediately logs in and configures a new, strong password.

Reference:
This question tests knowledge from the Security domain of the ITF+ exam. It covers the concepts of wireless security practices, specifically the importance of using strong, unique passwords to prevent unauthorized network access and mitigate bandwidth theft.

Explanation:
This question tests your understanding of the correct sequence of steps for physically creating a network cable (like an Ethernet cable). The process has a specific order to ensure efficiency and correctness.

Why A is Correct:
The cable tester is a verification tool used after the cable has been assembled. Its sole purpose is to check that the cable has been wired correctly, that all pins are connected properly, and that there are no shorts or opens. It is the final quality control step and, therefore, the last tool you would use in the process.

Why B is Incorrect:
A crimper is a essential tool used during the process. It is used to attach the Ethernet connector (RJ45) to the end of the cable by pressing the metal contacts down through the insulation of the individual wires, permanently securing them. This is a core step in the assembly, not the last one.
Why C is Incorrect:
A wire cutter (or cable stripper) is one of the first tools used. It is used to cut the cable to the desired custom length and to strip away the outer jacket to expose the inner twisted pairs of wires for termination.

Why D is Incorrect:
The Ethernet connector (RJ45 plug) is the component you are attaching to the cable. It is not a tool, but the item you use the tools on. You need to put the connector on the cable before you can use the crimper.

The Correct Order of Steps:

Use a wire cutter to cut the cable to the desired length.

Strip the outer jacket to expose the wires.

Untwist and arrange the wires in the correct color code order (T568A or T568B).

Trim the wires to an even length.

Insert the wires into an Ethernet connector (RJ45).

Use a crimper to secure the connector onto the cable.

(LAST STEP) Use a cable tester to verify the cable works correctly.

Reference:
This question falls under the Infrastructure domain of the ITF+ exam, specifically relating to network hardware and the practical skills needed to create basic networking components. It emphasizes the importance of procedure and validation in hands-on tasks.

Explanation:
The scenario describes a connectivity issue between two workstations on a network. This is a classic symptom of a network-level barrier preventing communication.

Why A is Correct:
A firewall is software (often built into the operating system) that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. If the firewall rules on one or both workstations are too restrictive, they can block the specific network packets or protocols needed for the two machines to communicate, even if they are on the same local network. Configuring the firewall to allow the necessary traffic is a primary step in troubleshooting this issue.

Why B is Incorrect:
A database is an organized collection of data stored and accessed electronically. It is an application, not a network configuration tool. It has no bearing on the fundamental ability of two computers to see each other on a network.

Why C is Incorrect:
Anti-malware software is designed to prevent, detect, and remove malicious software. While some advanced anti-malware suites might have network inspection features that could potentially block traffic, its primary function is not network connectivity. The firewall is a much more direct and common cause of this specific issue.

Why D is Incorrect:
A certificate (digital certificate) is used to establish a secure, encrypted connection (e.g., HTTPS) and to verify the identity of a remote party. It is related to security and encryption, not basic network connectivity. A missing or invalid certificate would typically cause an encryption or trust error after a connection is attempted, not a complete failure to connect.

Reference:
This question tests knowledge from the Infrastructure and Security domains of the ITF+ exam. It addresses common network troubleshooting steps, emphasizing that software firewalls on individual devices are a frequent culprit when connectivity between two devices on the same network fails.