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A network architect is designing a new network for a rural hospital system. Given the following requirements: Highly available Consistent data transmission 1 Resilient to simultaneous failures Which of the following topologies should the architect use?

A. Collapsed core

B. Hub-and-spoke

C. Mesh

D. Star

C.   Mesh

Explanation:
The requirements for the rural hospital network are high availability and consistent data transmission. These are critical for healthcare applications where network downtime can directly impact patient care.

A Mesh topology is the best choice to meet these requirements because it provides multiple redundant paths between nodes (devices, switches, routers).

High Availability:
In a full mesh topology, every node is connected to every other node. If any single connection or node fails, traffic can be instantly rerouted through an alternative path. This redundancy is the gold standard for maximizing uptime and fault tolerance.

Consistent Data Transmission:
event congestion and ensures reliable data delivery. If one path is experiencing latency or packet loss, traffic can be dynamically shifted to a better-performing route, maintaining consistent performance which is vital for real-time medical data and telemedicine.

While a full mesh is ideal for critical systems, a partial mesh is often implemented for cost-effectiveness while still providing significant redundancy for the most important connections (e.g., between core switches and distribution layers).

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A (Collapsed core):
A collapsed core design merges the core and distribution layers of a network into a single layer. While this can simplify design and reduce cost, it often creates a single point of failure. If the core switch fails, the entire network can go down. This directly contradicts the "highly available" requirement.

Option B (Hub-and-spoke):
In this topology (also known as a star topology in WAN contexts), all remote sites (spokes) connect to a central site (hub). This is cost-effective but has a critical single point of failure at the hub. If the hub's connection or equipment fails, all communication between spokes is lost. This does not meet the high availability requirement.

Option D (Star):
In a LAN context, a star topology has each device connected to a central switch or hub. While better than a bus or ring topology, it still has a single point of failure at the central device. If the central switch fails, all devices connected to it lose network connectivity. This lacks the inherent redundancy of a mesh network.

Conclusion:
For a critical environment like a hospital where both high availability and consistent performance are non-negotiable, a Mesh topology (or a network design incorporating mesh principles at its core) is the only option that provides the necessary path redundancy to eliminate single points of failure and ensure reliable data transmission.

A cloud architect needs to change the network configuration at a company that uses GitOps to document and implement network changes. The Git repository uses main as the default branch, and the main branch is protected. Which of the following should the architect do after cloning the repository?

A. Use the main branch to make and commit the changes back to the remote repository.

B. Create a new branch for the change, then create a pull request including the changes.

C. Check out the development branch, then perform and commit the changes back to the remote repository.

D. Rebase the remote main branch after making the changes to implement.

B.   Create a new branch for the change, then create a pull request including the changes.

Explanation:
This question tests the understanding of standard Git workflows, especially in a professional and secure environment like GitOps where the main branch is protected. The main branch is protected: This is a critical detail. A protected branch typically enforces rules such as:

Direct commits to main are forbidden.

All changes must be merged via a pull request (PR).

Pull requests require approvals from other team members before merging.

Status checks (e.g., CI/CD pipeline success) must pass before merging.

These rules ensure that only reviewed and tested code changes are deployed to the production environment (represented by main).

The Correct GitOps Workflow (Option B):

Clone the repository:
This is the first step, which the architect has already done.

Create a new branch:
The architect should create a new, descriptively-named branch off of main (e.g., git checkout -b feature/update-network-config). This isolates their changes from the stable main branch.

Make and commit changes:
The architect makes the necessary network configuration changes on this new branch and commits them locally.

Push the branch and create a Pull Request:
The architect pushes the new branch to the remote repository and creates a Pull Request targeting the main branch. The PR serves as a formal request to merge the changes and triggers the required review and approval process by other team members. It also typically triggers automated tests and validation pipelines. This process ensures compliance, peer review, and automated testing—all core principles of GitOps.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A (Use the main branch to make and commit the changes):
This will fail because the main branch is protected. The remote repository will reject any attempt to push direct commits to main. This violates the fundamental security and process controls of a GitOps workflow.

Option C (Check out the development branch, then perform and commit the changes):
While using a development branch is a common practice, the question does not mention its existence or state that it is an acceptable target for direct commits. Furthermore, the ultimate goal is to get changes into the main branch, which would still require a pull request from development to main. The most direct and standard practice is to branch off main for a specific change.

Option D (Rebase the remote main branch after making the changes):
This is incorrect and describes an invalid operation. You cannot rebase a remote branch directly. Rebasing is a local operation that rewrites commit history. Attempting to force-push a rebased main branch would also be rejected by the remote due to the branch protection rules. This action would cause significant collaboration problems.

Reference:
This workflow is a standard best practice for collaborative software development and is a cornerstone of GitOps methodologies. It is documented by version control platforms like GitHub, GitLab, and Atlassian Bitbucket in their guides for "Protected Branches" and "Pull Requests."

A network engineer identified several failed log-in attempts to the VPN from a user's account. When the engineer inquired, the user mentioned the IT help desk called and asked them to change their password. Which of the following types of attacks occurred?

A. Initialization vector

B. On-path

C. Evil twin

D. Social engineering

D.   Social engineering

Explanation:
The scenario describes a classic social engineering attack. Let's break down the key elements:

The Incident:
There are failed login attempts to the VPN from a user's account.

The User's Explanation:
The user states that the "IT help desk" called and asked them to change their password.

This is a common tactic used by attackers. They impersonate a trusted authority figure (in this case, the IT help desk) to manipulate the user into performing an action that compromises security. The attacker likely tricked the user into revealing their current password or into changing it to a value the attacker specified, giving the attacker control of the account and leading to the failed login attempts.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A (Initialization vector):
An initialization vector (IV) is a technical component used in cryptographic ciphers to ensure that encrypting the same plaintext multiple times produces different ciphertexts. An IV attack is a complex cryptographic exploit (e.g., IV reuse in WEP) and does not involve manipulating people over the phone. It is not relevant to this scenario.

Option B (On-path):
An on-path attack (formerly known as man-in-the-middle) involves an attacker secretly intercepting and potentially altering the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other. While a sophisticated attacker could use this after obtaining credentials, the core of this incident is the deceptive phone call to extract information directly from the user, not the interception of network traffic.

Option C (Evil twin):
An evil twin attack involves setting up a malicious wireless access point that mimics a legitimate Wi-Fi network. When users connect to this fake network, the attacker can monitor their traffic. This attack is specific to wireless networks and does not involve a phone call impersonating the help desk.

Conclusion:
The attack relied entirely on human manipulation and deception, which is the defining characteristic of social engineering. The attacker exploited the user's trust in the IT department to gain unauthorized access to their account.

Reference:
Social engineering is a well-documented attack vector in cybersecurity frameworks like the MITRE ATT&CK framework (under techniques like T1586: Phishing for Information and T1598: Phishing for Initial Access).

As part of a project to modernize a sports stadium and improve the customer service experience for fans, the stadium owners want to implement a new wireless system. Currently, all tickets are electronic and managed by the stadium mobile application. The new solution is required to allow location tracking precision within 5ft (1.5m) of fans to deliver the following services: Emergency/security assistance Mobile food order Event special effects Raffle winner location displayed on the giant stadium screen Which of the following technologies enables location tracking?

A. SSID

B. BLE

C. NFC

D. IoT

B.   BLE

Explanation:
The requirement is for highly precise indoor location tracking (within 5 feet or 1.5 meters) to enable specific, personalized services for fans in a stadium. Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) is the technology specifically designed for this purpose.

How BLE Enables Precision Tracking: BLE uses a technology called Bluetooth beaconing. Small, low-cost transmitters (beacons) can be placed throughout the stadium. A fan's smartphone (with Bluetooth enabled and the stadium's app installed) can detect the signals from these beacons.

By measuring the Received Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) from multiple beacons, the app (or a backend system) can triangulate the user's position with high accuracy, often down to 1-3 meters, meeting the 5ft requirement.

This allows the system to know precisely which section, row, and even seat a fan is in.

Application to the Required Services:

Emergency/security assistance: Security can be directed to the exact location of a fan in distress.

Mobile food order: Vendors can deliver food and beverages directly to a fan's seat.

Event special effects: Special lights or AR effects can be triggered on a user's phone based on their specific location.

Raffle winner location displayed on the giant stadium screen: The system can pinpoint the winner's seat and display it on the screen.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A (SSID):
An SSID (Service Set Identifier) is simply the name of a Wi-Fi network. While Wi-Fi can be used for less precise location tracking ("Wi-Fi positioning"), its accuracy is typically in the 10-15 meter range, which is not precise enough to identify a specific seat or person in a crowded stadium. It fails to meet the 5ft p

Option C (NFC):
NFC (Near Field Communication) requires extremely close proximity (a few centimeters) to work. It is used for tap-to-pay or tap-to-enter systems. A fan would have to physically tap their phone on a reader, making it useless for continuous, real-time location tracking across a large venue like a stadium.

Option D (IoT):
IoT (Internet of Things) is a broad category that encompasses many devices and technologies, including BLE beacons. However, IoT itself is not a specific location-tracking technology; it is a concept. BLE is a specific protocol and technology that falls under the IoT umbrella and is used for this precise purpose. Choosing "IoT" is too vague and does not correctly identify the enabling technology.

Conclusion:
Bluetooth Low Energy (BLE) with beacon technology is the industry-standard solution for providing highly accurate, low-power, indoor location-based services in environments like stadiums, museums, and airports. It is the only technology listed that can reliably achieve the required 5-foot tracking precision.

A network architect must ensure only certain departments can access specific resources while on premises. Those same users cannot be allowed to access those resources once they have left campus. Which of the following would ensure access is provided according to these requirements?

A. Enabling MFA for only those users within the departments needing access

B. Configuring geofencing with the IPs of the resources

C. Configuring UEBA to monitor all access to those resources during non-business hours

D. Implementing a PKI-based authentication system to ensure access

B.   Configuring geofencing with the IPs of the resources

Explanation:
The core requirement is to restrict access to specific resources based on physical location: access is granted only on-premises and explicitly denied once users have left campus. This is a textbook use case for geofencing.

How Geofencing Works: Geofencing creates a virtual boundary based on geographic location. In a network context, this is typically implemented by:

Identifying On-Premises IPs: The IT department defines the public IP address ranges (or a specific geographic area) that correspond to the company's physical campus.

Configuring Access Rules: An access control policy (e.g., in a firewall, VPN, or cloud application) is created that only allows connections to the protected resources if the request originates from these trusted on-premises IP addresses.

Enforcing the Policy: Any connection attempt from an IP address not within the defined geographic boundary (e.g., a user's home internet) is automatically blocked

This solution directly and effectively meets both parts of the requirement: allowing access on-premises and denying it off-premises.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option A (Enabling MFA for only those users within the departments):
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is a powerful security control that verifies a user's identity. However, it does not control access based on location. A user with valid MFA credentials could authenticate successfully from anywhere in the world. It ensures the who but not the where, failing the core requirement.

Option C (Configuring UEBA to monitor all access):
User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) is a monitoring and analytics tool. It can detect anomalous behavior, such as access from an unusual location, after it has already happened. It might generate an alert, but it does not prevent the access in real-time. The requirement is for a preventive control that actively blocks off-premises access, not a detective one that just reports on it.

Option D (Implementing a PKI-based authentication system):
A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) system provides strong authentication through digital certificates. Like MFA, it is excellent for verifying user identity. However, a certificate alone does not contain or enforce location information. A user with a valid PKI certificate can use it to authenticate from any location. It does not solve the problem of restricting access based on physical presence.

Conclusion:
Geofencing is the only technology listed that uses network-based location (IP address geolocation) as the primary factor for granting or denying access, making it the correct choice for ensuring resources are only available on-premises.

A company is experiencing numerous network issues and decides to expand its support team. The new junior employees will need to be onboarded in the shortest time possible and be able to troubleshoot issues with minimal assistance. Which of the following should the company create to achieve this goal?

A. Statement of work documenting what each junior employee should do when troubleshooting

B. Clearly documented runbooks for networking issues and knowledge base articles

C. Physical and logical network diagrams of the entire networking infrastructure

D. A mentor program for guiding each junior employee until they are familiar with the networking infrastructure

B.   Clearly documented runbooks for networking issues and knowledge base articles

Explanation:
The scenario's primary goals are to onboard new junior employees "in the shortest time possible" and enable them to troubleshoot issues with "minimal assistance."

Why B is Correct:
Runbooks and knowledge base (KB) articles are specifically designed for this purpose.

Runbooks provide a predefined, step-by-step guide for diagnosing and resolving specific, common network issues (e.g., "Steps to resolve intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity"). This allows a junior employee to follow a proven procedure without needing deep, prior experience, drastically reducing the need for assistance and speeding up resolution times.

Knowledge Base Articles serve as a centralized repository of information that explains how things work, documents past solutions to uncommon problems, and provides reference material. This empowers junior staff to find answers themselves before escalating, fostering independence.

Why the Other Options Are Less Effective:

A. Statement of work documenting what each junior employee should do:
A Statement of Work (SOW) is a formal document agreement between a company and an external vendor, outlining the scope of a project. It is completely unsuitable for internal employee troubleshooting procedures and does not provide the actionable, step-by-step guidance needed.

C. Physical and logical network diagrams:
While these diagrams are critical documentation for any network team and would be an essential part of the knowledge base, they are not sufficient on their own. A diagram shows what the infrastructure is and how it's connected, but it doesn't provide the procedural steps on how to fix specific problems. A junior employee would still need significant assistance interpreting the diagrams and knowing what actions to take.

D. A mentor program:
A mentor program is an excellent long-term strategy for professional development and knowledge transfer. However, it is the antithesis of achieving the goal of "minimal assistance." It requires constant, direct involvement from a senior employee, which is a resource-intensive process and does not scale well or enable the "shortest time possible" for independent troubleshooting.

Reference:
This concept is a cornerstone of IT Service Management (ITSM) best practices, particularly within the ITIL 4 framework.

ITIL 4 Practices:
This approach directly supports the Service Desk and Incident Management practices by providing agents with the tools to resolve issues quickly at the first point of contact. It is also a key component of the Knowledge Management practice, which aims to ensure that information is available and easy to find for those who need it.

An organization has centralized logging capability at the on-premises data center and wants a solution that can consolidate logging from deployed cloud workloads. The organization would like to automate the detection and alerting mechanism. Which of the following best meets the requirements?

A. IDS/IPS

B. SIEM

C. Data lake

D. Syslog

B.   SIEM

Explanation:

The question outlines three key requirements:
Consolidate logging from both on-premises and cloud workloads.

Automate the detection of potential issues or threats from these logs.

Automate the alerting mechanism based on that detection.

Why B is Correct:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is specifically designed to meet these exact requirements.

Consolidation:
A SIEM aggregates and normalizes log data from a vast array of sources, including on-premises servers, network devices, and cloud workloads from providers like AWS, Azure, and Google Cloud Platform.

Automated Detection:
The core function of a SIEM is to analyze the consolidated log data in real-time using correlation rules. These rules automatically detect patterns, anomalies, or known malicious activities (e.g., multiple failed login attempts followed by a success, access from a known malicious IP address).

Automated Alerting:
Once a SIEM's correlation engine detects a potential security event, it automatically triggers alerts to security personnel via email, SMS, dashboard notifications, or tickets in other systems (like a SOAR platform).

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. IDS/IPS:
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) or Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is designed to monitor network traffic for malicious activity and generate alerts (IDS) or block it (IPS). However, its focus is primarily on network traffic, not on consolidating and analyzing diverse log files from systems and applications. It does not meet the requirement for centralized log consolidation from cloud and on-premises sources.

C. Data lake:
A data lake is a large storage repository that holds a vast amount of raw data in its native format. While it could technically store all the logs, it lacks the built-in real-time correlation, analysis, and automated alerting capabilities of a SIEM. Analyzing data in a data lake typically requires separate data science or analytics tools and is not optimized for real-time security detection and alerting.

D. Syslog:
Syslog is a standard protocol used for message logging. It is a mechanism for sending log data from devices to a central collector. While a centralized syslog server can consolidate logs, it is a passive repository. It does not have the sophisticated correlation engines to perform automated detection and alerting; it simply receives and stores messages.

Reference:
The function of a SIEM system is a well-established concept in cybersecurity frameworks like the NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF), specifically under the Detect (DE) function (e.g., DE.AE-2: "Detectable events are detected" and DE.AE-3: "Event data are collected and correlated").

It is also a core component of Security Operations Center (SOC) architectures as defined by various industry standards and best practices.

An application is hosted on a three-node cluster in which each server has identical compute and network performance specifications. A fourth node is scheduled to be added to the cluster with three times the performance as any one of the preexisting nodes. The network architect wants to ensure that the new node gets the same approximate number of requests as all of the others combined. Which of the following load-balancing methodologies should the network architect recommend?

A. Round-robin

B. Load-based

C. Least connections

D. Weighted

D.   Weighted

Explanation:
The scenario presents a specific requirement: a new, significantly more powerful node is being added to a cluster, and the load balancer must distribute traffic in a way that leverages this power. The goal is for the new node (with 3x the performance) to receive "the same approximate number of requests as all of the others combined."

Let's break this down:
The three original nodes are of equal power. Let's assign each a "weight" of 1.

The new node has three times the performance, so it should be assigned a "weight" of 3.

The total weight of the cluster is now 1 + 1 + 1 + 3 = 6.

With a weighted distribution, the load balancer will send traffic proportionally to these weights. This means:

Each original node (weight 1) should receive ~1/6 (16.7%) of the traffic.

The new node (weight 3) should receive ~3/6 (50%) of the traffic.

This result perfectly matches the requirement:

the new node (50% of traffic) gets the same amount of traffic as all three original nodes combined (16.7% * 3 = 50%).

Why D is Correct:
The Weighted load-balancing algorithm allows the administrator to assign a performance "weight" to each server in the pool. The load balancer then distributes new connections or requests in proportion to these assigned weights. This is the definitive solution for a heterogeneous cluster where nodes have different capabilities.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Round-robin:
This method distributes requests sequentially to each server in the pool, one after the other. It treats all servers as equals. In this case, the new powerful server would only receive 1/4 (25%) of the requests, while the three original nodes would together receive 3/4 (75%). This underutilizes the new node and fails to meet the requirement.

B. Load-based:
This method distributes requests to the server with the most available resources (e.g., lowest CPU or memory utilization). While this might eventually direct more traffic to the more powerful node as it sits idle, its distribution is reactive and not guaranteed to be precisely proportional to the node's inherent capacity. The requirement is for a predictable, approximate distribution based on known performance specs, which a weighted algorithm provides directly.

C. Least connections:
This method sends new requests to the server with the fewest active connections. Like round-robin, it tends to equalize the number of connections across all servers, not the load. Therefore, the powerful new node would still only handle roughly 25% of the connections, failing to utilize its extra capacity.

Reference:
Weighted load-balancing algorithms (such as Weighted Round Robin or Weighted Least Connections) are a standard feature of modern load balancers and application delivery controllers (from vendors like F5, Citrix, and HAProxy). Their purpose is to handle exactly this scenario of a server pool with non-identical hardware.

A network architect needs to design a solution to ensure every cloud environment network is built to the same baseline. The solution must meet the following requirements: Use automated deployment. Easily update multiple environments. Share code with a community of practice. Which of the following are the best solutions? (Choose two.)

A. CI/CD pipelines

B. Public code repository

C. Deployment runbooks

D. Private code repository

E. Automated image deployment

F. Deployment guides

A.   CI/CD pipelines
B.   Public code repository

Explanation:
The question requires a solution that ensures uniform network baselines across all cloud environments and must meet three specific requirements: Use automated deployment.

Easily update multiple environments.

Share code with a community of practice.

Let's evaluate why the chosen answers are the best fit and why the others are not:

A. CI/CD Pipelines:
This is a core component of the solution.

Automated Deployment:
CI/CD (Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment) pipelines are the industry standard for automating the entire process of testing and deploying infrastructure code. A pipeline can be triggered to automatically build and configure a network to the exact same baseline every time.

Easily Update Multiple Environments:
A well-designed pipeline can promote the same tested code through different stages (e.g., Dev, Staging, Prod). Updating all environments is as simple as committing a change to the codebase; the pipeline automatically handles the deployment to each environment, ensuring they are all updated consistently.

B. Public Code Repository:
This is the other core component for sharing and collaboration.

Share Code with a Community of Practice:
A public code repository (e.g., on GitHub, GitLab, or Bitbucket) is the primary tool for openly sharing code. This allows the internal community of practice (the group of network architects and engineers) to collaborate, review each other's code (peer review), suggest improvements, and ensure everyone is using the latest, best-practice version of the network baseline code.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

C. Deployment Runbooks & F. Deployment Guides:
These are manual documentation. They describe the steps to deploy something but require a human to read and execute them. They fail the core requirement of "use automated deployment" and do not facilitate easy, consistent updates across multiple environments.

D. Private Code Repository:
While a private repository enables version control and collaboration within an organization, it does not optimally fulfill the requirement to "share code with a community of practice." A "community of practice" often implies a broader, cross-organizational group. A public repository is the standard tool for this kind of open collaboration and knowledge sharing.

E. Automated Image Deployment:
This involves creating a pre-configured golden image (e.g., an AMI in AWS) and deploying it. While it provides consistency, it is a less agile solution. Updating multiple environments is cumbersome—it requires creating a new image, testing it, and then redeploying it everywhere. It is not as easily updated as infrastructure-as-code (which is deployed via CI/CD pipelines). Furthermore, it does not directly facilitate sharing code with a community; you share an image, not the human-readable, modifiable code that defines the baseline.

Reference:
This approach is the foundation of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) and DevSecOps practices.

CI/CD Pipelines automate the testing and deployment of IaC (e.g., Terraform, Ansible scripts).

Public Repositories are used by communities built around tools like Terraform to share modules (e.g., in the Terraform Registry) and best practices. This design ensures consistent, repeatable, and easily auditable network deployments.

A call center company provides its services through a VoIP infrastructure. Recently, the call center set up an application to manage its documents on a cloud application. The application is causing recurring audio losses for VoIP callers. The network administrator needs to fix the issue with the least expensive solution. Which of the following is the best approach?

A. Adding a second internet link and physically splitting voice and data networks into different routes

B. Configuring QoS rules at the internet router to prioritize the VoIP calls

C. Creating two VLANs, one for voice and the other for data

D. Setting up VoIP devices to use a voice codec with a higher compression rate

B.   Configuring QoS rules at the internet router to prioritize the VoIP calls

Explanation:
The problem is characterized by recurring audio loss on VoIP calls that started after a new cloud application was introduced. This strongly suggests that the new application is consuming significant bandwidth, causing network congestion. This congestion leads to jitter and packet loss, which manifest as choppy or dropped audio in real-time applications like VoIP.

The requirement is to fix this with the "least expensive solution." This means we are looking for a solution that uses existing hardware and requires no new capital expenditure.

Why B is Correct:
Quality of Service (QoS) is a set of techniques used to manage network resources by prioritizing specific types of traffic.

How it fixes the issue:
By configuring QoS rules on the existing internet router, the network administrator can give VoIP traffic (which is highly sensitive to delay and loss) a higher priority than the cloud document application's traffic (which is typically less time-sensitive). When the link becomes congested, the router will buffer or drop packets from the data application before it affects the voice packets. This directly mitigates the audio loss without needing new hardware.

Cost:
This is a software-based configuration change on existing equipment. It requires no new purchases, making it the least expensive option.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect or Less Ideal:

A. Adding a second internet link and physically splitting voice and data networks:
While this would be a very effective solution (dedicating one link to voice and one to data), it is the most expensive option. It requires purchasing a new internet circuit, additional routers/firewalls, and ongoing monthly service fees. It does not meet the "least expensive" requirement.

C. Creating two VLANs, one for voice and the other for data:
Creating VLANs is a best practice for segmenting traffic within the local area network (LAN). However, the problem is occurring over the internet link to the cloud application. Segmenting traffic on the LAN with VLANs does nothing to manage congestion on the WAN/internet connection, which is the bottleneck in this scenario.

D. Setting up VoIP devices to use a voice codec with a higher compression rate:
A higher compression codec (e.g., switching from G.711 to G.729) would use less bandwidth per call. While this might help slightly, it is a suboptimal fix. It reduces audio quality even when the network is not congested.

It does not address the root cause (the cloud app starving VoIP of resources); it just makes the VoIP streams smaller. If the cloud app consumes all available bandwidth, even the compressed voice calls will experience loss.

It requires reconfiguring all VoIP devices and may not be supported by all hardware, making it more complex than a single router configuration change (QoS).

Reference:
QoS is a fundamental networking concept for managing real-time traffic and is covered in network certifications like Cisco's CCNA and CompTIA Network+. Best practices for VoIP implementation, as defined by organizations like the VoIP Forum, always recommend implementing QoS on network devices to prioritize voice traffic over data traffic.

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