CompTIA CAS-005 Practice Test

Prepare smarter and boost your chances of success with our CompTIA CAS-005 Practice test. This test helps you assess your knowledge, pinpoint strengths, and target areas for improvement. Surveys and user data from multiple platforms show that individuals who use CAS-005 practice exam are 40–50% more likely to pass on their first attempt.

Start practicing today and take the fast track to becoming CompTIA CAS-005 certified.

11030 already prepared
Updated On : 18-Jun-2025
103 Questions
4.8/5.0

Page 4 out of 11 Pages

The identity and access management team is sending logs to the SIEM for continuous monitoring. The deployed log collector is forwarding logs to the SIEM. However, only false positive alerts are being generated. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the inaccurate alerts?

A. The compute resources are insufficient to support the SIEM

B. The SIEM indexes are 100 large

C. The data is not being properly parsed

D. The retention policy is not property configured


C.   The data is not being properly parsed

Explanation:

Proper parsing of data is crucial for the SIEM to accurately interpret and analyze the logs being forwarded by the log collector. If the data is not parsed correctly, the SIEM may misinterpret the logs, leading to false positives and inaccurate alerts. Ensuring that the log data is correctly parsed allows the SIEM to correlate and analyze the logs effectively, which is essential for accurate alerting and monitoring.

An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?

A. SASE

B. CMDB

C. SBoM

D. SLM


B.   CMDB

Explanation:

A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.

ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.

"Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.

Which of the following best explains the importance of determining organization risk appetite when operating with a constrained budget?

A. Risk appetite directly impacts acceptance of high-impact low-likelihood events

B. Organizational risk appetite varies from organization to organization

C. Budgetary pressure drives risk mitigation planning in all companies

D. Risk appetite directly influences which breaches are disclosed publicly


A.   Risk appetite directly impacts acceptance of high-impact low-likelihood events

Explanation:

Risk appetite is the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. When operating with a constrained budget, understanding the organization's risk appetite is crucial because:

It helps prioritize security investments based on the level of risk the organization is willing to tolerate.

High-impact, low-likelihood events may be deemed acceptable if they fall within the organization's risk appetite, allowing for budget allocation to other critical areas.

Properly understanding and defining risk appetite ensures that limited resources are used effectively to manage risks that align with the organization's strategic goals.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) guidelines

ISO 31000, "Risk Management – Guidelines"

Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs

A. Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs

B. Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.

C. Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs

D. Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database.


C.   Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs

Explanation:

To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.

References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention.

NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.

"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.

An organization is required to

* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements

The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?

A. Outsourcing the handling of necessary regulatory filing to an external consultant

B. Integrating automated response mechanisms into the data subject access request process

C. Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel

D. Conducting lessons-learned activities and integrating observations into the crisis management plan


C.   Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel

Explanation:

Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.

Why Communication Templates?

Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.

Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.

Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization’s credibility.

Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately. Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:

A. Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.

B. Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.

D. Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"

ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology — Security techniques — Code of practice for information security controls"

An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?

* The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise
* The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
* The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity
* Multiple copies of production data must be maintained

Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?

A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis

B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync

C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases to ensure real-time transactions are mirrored

D. Setting up antitempering on the databases to ensure data cannot be changed unintentionally


A.   Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis

Explanation:

A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis: An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.

Other options:

B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync: While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously. C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.

D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.

References:

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide

NIST SP 800-209, "Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure"

"Immutable Backup Architecture" by Veeam

A company's SICM Is continuously reporting false positives and false negatives The security operations team has Implemented configuration changes to troubleshoot possible reporting errors Which of the following sources of information best supports the required analysts process? (Select two).

A. Third-party reports and logs

B. Trends

C. Dashboards

D. Alert failures

E. Network traffic summaries

F. Manual review processes


A.   Third-party reports and logs
B.   Trends

Explanation:

When dealing with false positives and false negatives reported by a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, the goal is to enhance the accuracy of the alerts and ensure that actual threats are identified correctly. The following sources of information best support the analysis process:

A. Third-party reports and logs: Utilizing external sources of information such as threat intelligence reports, vendor logs, and other third-party data can provide a broader perspective on potential threats. These sources often contain valuable insights and context that can help correlate events more accurately, reducing the likelihood of false positives and false negatives.

B. Trends: Analyzing trends over time can help in understanding patterns and anomalies in the data. By observing trends, the security team can distinguish between normal and abnormal behavior, which aids in fine-tuning the SIEM configurations to better detect true positives and reduce false alerts.

Other options such as dashboards, alert failures, network traffic summaries, and manual review processes are also useful but are more operational rather than foundational for understanding the root causes of reporting errors in SIEM configurations.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of leveraging external threat intelligence and historical trends for accurate threat detection. NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Highlights best practices for log management, including the use of third-party sources and trend analysis to improve incident detection.

"Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Discusses the use of external intelligence and trends to enhance SIEM accuracy.

A company wants to use loT devices to manage and monitor thermostats at all facilities The thermostats must receive vendor security updates and limit access to other devices within the organization Which of the following best addresses the company's requirements''

A. Only allowing Internet access to a set of specific domains

B. Operating lot devices on a separate network with no access to other devices internally

C. Only allowing operation for loT devices during a specified time window

D. Configuring IoT devices to always allow automatic updates


B.    Operating lot devices on a separate network with no access to other devices internally

Explanation:

The best approach for managing and monitoring IoT devices, such as thermostats, is to operate them on a separate network with no access to other internal devices. This segmentation ensures that the IoT devices are isolated from the main network, reducing the risk of potential security breaches affecting other critical systems. Additionally, this setup allows for secure vendor updates without exposing the broader network to potential vulnerabilities inherent in IoT devices.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends network segmentation for IoT devices to minimize security risks.

NIST Special Publication 800-183, "Network of Things": Advises on the isolation of IoT devices to enhance security.

"Practical IoT Security" by Brian Russell and Drew Van Duren: Discusses best practices for securing IoT devices, including network segmentation.

Company A and Company D ate merging Company A's compliance reports indicate branch protections are not in place A security analyst needs to ensure that potential threats to the software development life cycle are addressed. Which of the following should me analyst cons

A. If developers are unable to promote to production

B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository

C. If DAST scans are routinely scheduled

D. If role-based training is deployed


C.   If DAST scans are routinely scheduled

Explanation:

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure development process. Why Routine DAST Scans?

Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real-time, ensuring they are addressed promptly. Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards and regulations.

Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches. Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a security-first approach.

Other options, while relevant, do not directly address the continuous assessment and proactive identification of threats:

A. If developers are unable to promote to production: This is more of an operational issue than a security assessment.

B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository: This concerns code management rather than security testing frequency.

D. If role-based training is deployed: While important, training alone does not ensure continuous security assessment.

References:

CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide

OWASP Testing Guide

NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"

A hospital provides tablets to its medical staff to enable them to more quickly access and edit patients' charts. The hospital wants to ensure that if a tablet is Identified as lost or stolen and a remote command is issued, the risk of data loss can be mitigated within seconds. The tablets are configured as follows to meet hospital policy

• Full disk encryption is enabled

• "Always On" corporate VPN is enabled

• ef-use-backed keystore is enabled'ready.

• Wi-Fi 6 is configured with SAE.

• Location services is disabled.

•Application allow list is configured

A. Revoking the user certificates used for VPN and Wi-Fi access

B. Performing cryptographic obfuscation

C. Using geolocation to find the device

D. Configuring the application allow list to only per mil emergency calls

E. Returning on the device's solid-state media to zero


E.   Returning on the device's solid-state media to zero

Explanation:

To mitigate the risk of data loss on a lost or stolen tablet quickly, the most effective strategy is to return the device's solid-state media to zero, which effectively erases all data on the device. Here's why:

Immediate Data Erasure: Returning the solid-state media to zero ensures that all data is wiped instantly, mitigating the risk of data loss if the device is lost or stolen. Full Disk Encryption: Even though the tablets are already encrypted, physically erasing the data ensures that no residual data can be accessed if someone attempts to bypass encryption.

Compliance and Security: This method adheres to best practices for data security and compliance, ensuring that sensitive patient data cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties.

References:

Page 4 out of 11 Pages
CAS-005 Practice Test Previous