CompTIA CAS-005 Practice Test
Prepare smarter and boost your chances of success with our CompTIA CAS-005 Practice test. This test helps you assess your knowledge, pinpoint strengths, and target areas for improvement. Surveys and user data from multiple platforms show that individuals who use CAS-005 practice exam are 40–50% more likely to pass on their first attempt.
Start practicing today and take the fast track to becoming CompTIA CAS-005 certified.
11030 already prepared
Updated On : 18-Jun-2025103 Questions
4.8/5.0
A company wants to implement hardware security key authentication for accessing sensitive information systems The goal is to prevent unauthorized users from gaining access with a stolen password Which of the following models should the company implement to b«st solve this issue?
A. Rule based
B. Time-based
C. Role based
D. Context-based
Explanation:
Context-based authentication enhances traditional security methods by incorporating
additional layers of information about the user's current environment and behavior. This
can include factors such as the user's location, the time of access, the device used, and
the behavior patterns. It is particularly useful in preventing unauthorized access even if an
attacker has obtained a valid password.
Rule-based (A) focuses on predefined rules and is less flexible in adapting to
dynamic threats.
Time-based (B) authentication considers the time factor but doesn't provide
comprehensive protection against stolen credentials.
Role-based (C) is more about access control based on the user's role within the
organization rather than authenticating the user based on current context.
By implementing context-based authentication, the company can ensure that even if a
password is compromised, the additional contextual factors required for access (which an
attacker is unlikely to possess) provide a robust defense mechanism.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX guide on authentication models and best practices.
NIST guidelines on authentication and identity proofing.
Analysis of multi-factor and adaptive authentication techniques.
A systems administrator wants to use existing resources to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate. Which of the following is the best way to meet this objective?
A. Configuring an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets
B. Combining back-end application storage into a single, relational database
C. Purchasing and deploying commercial off the shelf aggregation software
D. Migrating application usage logs to on-premises storage
Explanation:
The best way to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that
do not currently communicate is to configure an API Integration to aggregate the different
data sets. Here's why:
Interoperability: APIs allow different systems to communicate and share data, even
if they were not originally designed to work together. This enables the integration
of various security appliances into a unified reporting system.
Automation: API integrations can automate the process of data collection,
aggregation, and reporting, reducing manual effort and increasing efficiency.
Scalability: APIs provide a scalable solution that can easily be extended to include
additional security appliances or data sources as needed.
A cloud engineer needs to identify appropriate solutions to:
• Provide secure access to internal and external cloud resources.
• Eliminate split-tunnel traffic flows.
• Enable identity and access management capabilities.
Which of the following solutions arc the most appropriate? (Select two).
A. Federation
B. Microsegmentation
C. CASB
D. PAM
E. SD-WAN
F. SASE
F. SASE
Explanation:
To provide secure access to internal and external cloud resources, eliminate split-tunnel
traffic flows, and enable identity and access management capabilities, the most appropriate
solutions are CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) and SASE (Secure Access Service
Edge).
Why CASB and SASE?
CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker):
SASE (Secure Access Service Edge):
Other options, while useful, do not comprehensively address all the requirements:
A. Federation: Useful for identity management but does not eliminate split-tunnel
traffic or provide comprehensive security.
B. Microsegmentation: Enhances security within the network but does not directly
address secure access to cloud resources or split-tunnel traffic.
D. PAM (Privileged Access Management): Focuses on managing privileged
accounts and does not provide comprehensive access control for internal and
external resources.
E. SD-WAN: Enhances WAN performance but does not inherently provide the
identity and access management capabilities or eliminate split-tunnel traffic.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"CASB: Cloud Access Security Broker," Gartner Research
A company detects suspicious activity associated with external connections Security detection tools are unable to categorize this activity. Which of the following is the best solution to help the company overcome this challenge?
A. Implement an Interactive honeypot
B. Map network traffic to known loCs.
C. Monitor the dark web
D. implement UEBA
Explanation:
User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to help the company
overcome challenges associated with suspicious activity that cannot be categorized by
traditional detection tools. UEBA uses advanced analytics to establish baselines of normal
behavior for users and entities within the network. It then identifies deviations from these
baselines, which may indicate malicious activity. This approach is particularly effective for
detecting unknown threats and sophisticated attacks that do not match known indicators of
compromise (IoCs).
Reference: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide, Chapter on Advanced Threat Detection and
Mitigation, Section on User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA).
A network engineer must ensure that always-on VPN access is enabled Curt restricted to company assets Which of the following best describes what the engineer needs to do''
A. Generate device certificates using the specific template settings needed
B. Modify signing certificates in order to support IKE version 2
C. Create a wildcard certificate for connections from public networks
D. Add the VPN hostname as a SAN entry on the root certificate
Explanation:
To ensure always-on VPN access is enabled and restricted to company
assets, the network engineer needs to generate device certificates using the specific
template settings required for the company's VPN solution. These certificates ensure that
only authorized devices can establish a VPN connection.
Why Device Certificates are Necessary:
Authentication: Device certificates authenticate company assets, ensuring that
only authorized devices can access the VPN.
Security: Certificates provide a higher level of security compared to username and
password combinations, reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
Compliance: Certificates help in meeting security policies and compliance
requirements by ensuring that only managed devices can connect to the corporate
network.
Other options do not provide the same level of control and security for always-on VPN
access:
B. Modify signing certificates for IKE version 2: While important for VPN protocols,
it does not address device-specific authentication.
C. Create a wildcard certificate: This is not suitable for device-specific
authentication and could introduce security risks.
D. Add the VPN hostname as a SAN entry: This is more related to certificate
management and does not ensure device-specific authentication.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Device Certificates for VPN Access," Cisco Documentation
NIST Special Publication 800-77, "Guide to IPsec VPNs"
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack
detected on a web server The cloud service provider shared the following information about
the attack:
• The attack came from inside the network.
• The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners.
• The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs m order to avoid false positives
B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host
C. Set network behavior analysis rules
D. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis
Explanation:
When a security analyst receives a notification about an attack that appears
to originate from an internal vulnerability scanner, it suggests that the scanner itself might
have been compromised. This situation is critical because a compromised scanner can
potentially conduct unauthorized scans, leak sensitive information, or execute malicious
actions within the network. The appropriate first action involves containing the threat to
prevent further damage and allow for a thorough investigation.
Here’s why quarantining the scanner sensor is the best immediate action:
Containment and Isolation: Quarantining the scanner will immediately prevent it
from continuing any malicious activity or scans. This containment is crucial to
protect the rest of the network from potential harm.
Forensic Analysis: By isolating the scanner, a forensic analysis can be performed
to understand how it was compromised, what actions it took, and what data or
systems might have been affected. This analysis will provide valuable insights into
the nature of the attack and help in taking appropriate remedial actions.
Preventing Further Attacks: If the scanner is allowed to continue operating, it might
execute more unauthorized actions, leading to greater damage. Quarantine
ensures that the threat is neutralized promptly.
Root Cause Identification: A forensic analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the
scanner’s configuration, software, or underlying system that allowed the
compromise. This information is essential for preventing future incidents.
Other options, while potentially useful in the long term, are not appropriate as immediate
actions in this scenario:
A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs to avoid false positives:
This action addresses false positives but does not mitigate the immediate threat
posed by the compromised scanner.
B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host: This step is
preventive for future scans but does not deal with the current incident where the
scanner is already compromised.
C. Set network behavior analysis rules: While useful for ongoing monitoring and
detection, this does not address the immediate need to stop the compromised
scanner’s activities.
In conclusion, the first and most crucial action is to quarantine the scanner sensor to halt
any malicious activity and perform a forensic analysis to understand the scope and nature
of the compromise. This step ensures that the threat is contained and provides a basis for
further remediation efforts.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling
Guide"
A company isolated its OT systems from other areas of the corporate network These systems are required to report usage information over the internet to the vendor Which oi the following b*st reduces the risk of compromise or sabotage' (Select two).
A. Implementing allow lists
B. Monitoring network behavior
C. Encrypting data at rest
D. Performing boot Integrity checks
E. Executing daily health checks
F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN
F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN
Explanation:
A. Implementing allow lists: Allow lists (whitelisting) restrict network communication
to only authorized devices and applications, significantly reducing the attack
surface by ensuring that only pre-approved traffic is permitted.
F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN: A site-to-site VPN provides a secure,
encrypted tunnel for data transmission between the OT systems and the vendor,
protecting the data from interception and tampering during transit.
Other options:
B. Monitoring network behavior: While useful for detecting anomalies, it does not
proactively reduce the risk of compromise or sabotage.
C. Encrypting data at rest: Important for protecting data stored on devices, but
does not address network communication risks.
D. Performing boot integrity checks: Ensures the integrity of the system at startup
but does not protect ongoing network communications.
E. Executing daily health checks: Useful for maintaining system health but does
not directly reduce the risk of network-based compromise or sabotage.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-82, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security"
"Industrial Network Security" by Eric D. Knapp and Joel Thomas Langill
Company A acquired Company B and needs to determine how the acquisition will impact the attack surface of the organization as a whole. Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal? (Select two). Implementing DLP controls preventing sensitive data from leaving Company B's network
A. Documenting third-party connections used by Company B
B. Reviewing the privacy policies currently adopted by Company B
C. Requiring data sensitivity labeling tor all files shared with Company B
D. Forcing a password reset requiring more stringent passwords for users on Company B's network
E. Performing an architectural review of Company B's network
B. Reviewing the privacy policies currently adopted by Company B
Explanation:
To determine how the acquisition of Company B will impact the attack
surface, the following steps are crucial:
A. Documenting third-party connections used by Company B: Understanding all
external connections is essential for assessing potential entry points for attackers and
ensuring that these connections are secure.
E. Performing an architectural review of Company B's network: This review will identify
vulnerabilities and assess the security posture of the acquired company's network,
providing a comprehensive understanding of the new attack surface.
These actions will provide a clear picture of the security implications of the acquisition and
help in developing a plan to mitigate any identified risks.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of understanding
third-party connections and conducting architectural reviews during acquisitions.
NIST Special Publication 800-37, "Guide for Applying the Risk Management
Framework to Federal Information Systems": Recommends comprehensive
reviews and documentation of third-party connections.
"Mergers, Acquisitions, and Other Restructuring Activities" by Donald DePamphilis:
Discusses the importance of security assessments during acquisitions.
Users must accept the terms presented in a captive petal when connecting to a guest
network. Recently, users have reported that they are unable to access the Internet after
joining the network A network engineer observes the following:
• Users should be redirected to the captive portal.
• The Motive portal runs Tl. S 1 2
• Newer browser versions encounter security errors that cannot be bypassed
• Certain websites cause unexpected re directs
Which of the following mow likely explains this behavior?
A. The TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal ate deprecated
B. Employment of the HSTS setting is proliferating rapidly.
C. Allowed traffic rules are causing the NIPS to drop legitimate traffic
D. An attacker is redirecting supplicants to an evil twin WLAN.
Explanation:
The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal
is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here’s why:
TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the
latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure
cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may
refuse to connect, causing security errors.
HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security
(HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security
configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the
connection.
References:
By updating the TLS ciphers to modern, supported ones, the security engineer can ensure
compatibility with newer browser versions and resolve the connectivity issues reported by
users.
A security review revealed that not all of the client proxy traffic is being captured. Which of the following architectural changes best enables the capture of traffic for analysis?
A. Adding an additional proxy server to each segmented VLAN
B. Setting up a reverse proxy for client logging at the gateway
C. Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs
D. Enabling client device logging and system event auditing
Explanation:
Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs is the best architectural
change to ensure that all client proxy traffic is captured for analysis. Here’s why:
Comprehensive Traffic Capture: A span port (or mirror port) on the perimeter
firewall can capture all inbound and outbound traffic, including traffic that might
bypass the proxy. This ensures that all network traffic is available for analysis.
Centralized Logging: By capturing logs at the perimeter firewall, the organization
can centralize logging and analysis, making it easier to detect and investigate
anomalies.
Minimal Disruption: Implementing a span port is a non-intrusive method that does
not require significant changes to the network architecture, thus minimizing
disruption to existing services.
Page 3 out of 11 Pages |
CAS-005 Practice Test | Previous |